Pennsylvania Department of Health
EMBASSY OF WOODLAND PARK
Patient Care Inspection Results

Note: If you need to change the font size, click the "View" menu at the top of the page, place the mouse over the "Text Size" menu item, and select the desired font size.

Severity Designations

Click here for definitions Click here for definitions Click here for definitions Click here for definitions
Minimal Citation - No Harm Minimal Harm Actual Harm Serious Harm
EMBASSY OF WOODLAND PARK
Inspection Results For:

There are  114 surveys for this facility. Please select a date to view the survey results.

Surveys don't appear on this website until at least 41 days have elapsed since the exit date of the survey.
EMBASSY OF WOODLAND PARK - Inspection Results Scope of Citation
Number of Residents Affected
By Deficient Practice
Initial comments:Based on a Medicare/Medicaid Recertification survey, State Licensure survey, and Civil Rights Compliance survey  completed on December 4, 2025, it was determined that Embassy of Woodland Park was not in compliance with the following requirements of 42 CFR Part 483, Subpart B, Requirements for Long Term Care Facilities and the 28 PA Code, Commonwealth of Pennsylvania Long Term Care Licensure Regulations.


 Plan of Correction:


483.10(c)(1)(4)(5) REQUIREMENT Right to be Informed/Make Treatment Decisions:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and affects more than a limited number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status. This deficiency was not found to be throughout this facility.
§483.10(c) Planning and Implementing Care.
The resident has the right to be informed of, and participate in, his or her treatment, including:

§483.10(c)(1) The right to be fully informed in language that he or she can understand of his or her total health status, including but not limited to, his or her medical condition.

§483.10(c)(4) The right to be informed, in advance, of the care to be furnished and the type of care giver or professional that will furnish care.

§483.10(c)(5) The right to be informed in advance, by the physician or other practitioner or professional, of the risks and benefits of proposed care, of treatment and treatment alternatives or treatment options and to choose the alternative or option he or she prefers.
Observations:

Based on review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to inform the resident and/or resident representative in advance of the risks and benefits of psychotropic medication (medications that affect the persons mental state, emotions and behavior) use and the treatment alternatives prior to initiating the administration of the medication for five of 35 residents reviewed (Residents 8, 10, 11, 19 and 68).

Findings Include:

The facility's policy regarding the use of psychotropic medications, dated March 13, 2025, indicated that prior to initiating or increasing a psychotropic medication, the resident, family, and/or resident representative must be informed of the benefits, risks, and alternatives for the medications, including any black box warnings for antipsychotic medications, in advance of such initiation or increase. The facility would document that the resident or resident representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits of the proposed care, the treatment alternatives or other options and the preferred option to accept or decline in a format the facility deems to use (e.g., written consent form, narrative note, etc.).

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 8, dated October 8, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, received antipsychotic medications (a psychotropic medication), and had diagnoses that included dementia, post traumatic stress syndrome, and anxiety.

Physician's orders for Resident 8, dated February 17, 2023, included an order for the resident to receive 25 milligrams (mg) of Cymbalta (an antidepressant medication) twice a day. Physician's orders for Resident 8, dated July 19, 2025, included an order for the resident to receive 25 mg of Cymbalta three times a day.
There was no documented evidence in Resident 8's clinical record that the resident's representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits and treatment alternatives prior to increasing the dose of Cymbalta.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025, at 1:31 p.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence in Resident 8's clinical record that the resident's representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits and treatment alternatives prior to increasing the dose of Cymbalta.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 10, dated October 14, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, received antipsychotic and antianxiety (psychotropic medication), and had diagnoses that includeddementia.

Physician's orders for Resident 10, dated June 2, 2025, included an order for the resident to receive 0.25 mg of lorazepam (an antianxiety medication) once daily for generalized anxiety. Physician's orders for Resident 10, dated November 4, 2025, included an order for the resident to receive 0.5 mg of lorazepam twice daily for generalized anxiety.

There was no documented evidence in Resident 10's clinical record that the resident's representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits and treatment alternatives prior to initiating an increased dose of lorazepam.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025, at 11:01 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence in the Resident 10's clinical record that the resident's representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits and treatment alternatives prior to increasing lorazepam.

An admission MDS assessment for Resident 11, dated October 14, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, received antianxiety medications, and had diagnoses that included dementia.
Physician's orders for Resident 11 , dated August 30, 2025, included an order for the resident to receive 0.5 mg of Rexulti (an antipsychotic medication) daily for dementia with behavioral disturbance.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025, at 11:01 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence in the Resident 11's clinical record that the resident's representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits and treatment alternatives prior to initiating Rexulti.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 19, dated October 13, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, received antidepressant medications, and had a diagnosis of depression.

A psychiatric evaluation and consultation note for Resident 19, dated June 7, 2025, revealed
recommendations to discontinue the resident's Seroquel (an antipsychotic medication used to treat mental health disorders) and increase the resident's Zoloft (an antidepressant medication) from 50mg to 75 mg daily.

Physician's orders for Resident 19, dated June 7, 2025, included orders for the resident to receive 75 mg of Zoloft daily.

There was no documented evidence in Resident 19's clinical record to indicate that the residents representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits and treatment alternatives prior to initiating the increased dose of Zoloft.
with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025, at 11:01 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence in the Resident 19's clinical record that the resident's representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits and treatment alternatives prior to initiating the increased dose of Zoloft.

An admission MDS assessment for Resident 68, dated October 8, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, received antipsychotic medications, and had diagnoses that included Alzheimer's dementia.

Physician's orders for Resident 68, dated November 23, 2025, included an order for the resident to receive 0.5 mg of Rexulti daily for 7 days to begin November 24, 2025, through December 1, 2025; then 1 mg of Rexulti daily for 7 days to begin December 1, 2025, through December 8, 2025; then Rexulti 2 mg daily to begin December 8, 2025.

There was no documented evidence in Resident 68's clinical record that the resident's representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits and treatment alternatives prior to initiating Rexulti.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025, at 11:01 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence in the Resident 68's clinical record that the resident's representative was informed in advance of the risks and benefits and treatment alternatives prior to initiating Rexulti.

28 Pa. Code 201.14(a) Responsibility of licensee.

28 Pa. Code 201.18(b)(2) Management.

28 Pa. Code 201.29(a): Resident rights.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

Residents 8, 10, 11,19 and 68 had no ill effects related to starting psychotropic medications prior to the facility reviewing the risks versus benefits with their responsible parties.

Residents 8, 10, 11, 19 and 68 had their medications reviewed, and the nursing department discussed the risks versus benefits with their responsible parties.

The physician was updated regarding the risks versus benefits associated with the prescribed psychotropic medications for residents 8, 10, 11, 19, and 68.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform a baseline audit of all the residents with psychotropic medications to ensure their responsible parties were notified of the risks versus benefits.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform weekly audits of all new medication orders and ensure that any new or changes to psychotropic medications were reviewed with the responsible parties regarding the risks versus benefits of the medication. Audits will continue x 4 weeks.

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facility's Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initials are completed, and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and the guidance via Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective and for ongoing compliance.

483.60(i)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Food Procurement,Store/Prepare/Serve-Sanitary:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and affects more than a limited number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status. This deficiency was not found to be throughout this facility.
§483.60(i) Food safety requirements.
The facility must -

§483.60(i)(1) - Procure food from sources approved or considered satisfactory by federal, state or local authorities.
(i) This may include food items obtained directly from local producers, subject to applicable State and local laws or regulations.
(ii) This provision does not prohibit or prevent facilities from using produce grown in facility gardens, subject to compliance with applicable safe growing and food-handling practices.
(iii) This provision does not preclude residents from consuming foods not procured by the facility.

§483.60(i)(2) - Store, prepare, distribute and serve food in accordance with professional standards for food service safety.
Observations:

Based on facility policies, observations, and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to store, prepare, distribute and serve food in accordance with professional standards for food service safety.

Findings include:

Observations of the walk in cooler on December 1, 2025, at 9:50 a.m. and December 3, 2025 at 1:43 p.m. respectively, revealed a shelving unit with an opened box of eggs and a box containing cartons of liquid eggs being stored on the bottom shelf, which was approximately 1.0 to 1.5 inches off the ground. On the floor beneath the shelving unit was debris including individual butter containers and brown onion skins.

Interview with the Dietary Director on December 3, 2025, at 1:43 p.m. indicated that food should be stored at least six inches off the ground and confirmed that the floor underneath the shelf should be free of debris and food items that had fallen. The shelves were recently put in by maintenance.

Observations of the facility's dishwasher on December 3, 2025, at 1:24 p.m. revealed that it was a high temperature dishwasher that was converted to a low temp dishwasher with chemical sanitization. There were two dietary staff in the dish room washing dishes at that time and multiple attempts were made to test the sanitization, but the testing strips remained white with no indication of sanitizer in the water.

Interview with the Dietary Manager on December 3, 2025, and again on December 4, 2025, at 12:58 at the time of observation, confirmed that the chemicals were just changed out recently and the machine was serviced on December 3, 2025. There were two companies coming in on December 5, 2025 to check the machine. The sanitizer does not work consistently and the facility has been washing the dishes by hand utilizing the three bin sink.

28 Pa. Code 211.6(f) Dietary Services.

28 Pa. Code 207.4 Ice Containers and Storage.









 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

Maintenance request placed on 12/3/25 and shelving unit adjusted to ensure that bottom shelf is 6 inches above the floor.

Spartan chemical into facility on 12/5/25 to fix issue with sanitizer injecting into water supply on the rinse jets.

The Dietary staff will be educated on the facilities food storage policy and dishwasher/ sanitation policy

The dietary manager or designee will complete random weekly audits utilizing testing strips to ensure dishwasher is providing chemical sanitation x 4 weeks

The dietary manager or designee will complete random weekly audits x 4 weeks on random food storage areas to ensure food is being stored at least 6 inches above the floor.

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facilities Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initial audits are completed and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and guidance via facility Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective for ongoing compliance.

483.10(i)(1)-(7) REQUIREMENT Safe/Clean/Comfortable/Homelike Environment:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.10(i) Safe Environment.
The resident has a right to a safe, clean, comfortable and homelike environment, including but not limited to receiving treatment and supports for daily living safely.

The facility must provide-
§483.10(i)(1) A safe, clean, comfortable, and homelike environment, allowing the resident to use his or her personal belongings to the extent possible.
(i) This includes ensuring that the resident can receive care and services safely and that the physical layout of the facility maximizes resident independence and does not pose a safety risk.
(ii) The facility shall exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft.

§483.10(i)(2) Housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a sanitary, orderly, and comfortable interior;

§483.10(i)(3) Clean bed and bath linens that are in good condition;

§483.10(i)(4) Private closet space in each resident room, as specified in §483.90 (e)(2)(iv);

§483.10(i)(5) Adequate and comfortable lighting levels in all areas;

§483.10(i)(6) Comfortable and safe temperature levels. Facilities initially certified after October 1, 1990 must maintain a temperature range of 71 to 81°F; and

§483.10(i)(7) For the maintenance of comfortable sound levels.
Observations:

Based on observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to provide a clean and homelike environment in residents' dining and activity areas (100 hall), and for two residents who had holes in fitted sheets (Resident 18, 64).

Findings include:

Observations of the 100 hall dining room on December 1, 2025, at 12:11 p.m. revealed that there were three people eating in the room. There was a small vase of flowers sitting on the windowsill and approximately 30 dead insects that were light brown and dried out also on the windowsill.

Observations of the 100 hall dining/activity room on December 3, 2023, at 3:32 p.m. revealed dead insects on the windowsill.

Interview with Nurse Aide 1 on December 3, 2025, at 3:32 p.m. confirmed that there were dead insects on the windowsills and that they should have been cleaned up.

Interview with the Director of Housekeeping on December 4, 2025, at 10:42 a.m. confirmed that there should not have been any dead insects in the areas mentioned.

Observations of Resident 18's bed on December 4, 2025, at 10:45 a.m. revealed that there was a hole approximately 5 millimeters (mm) in size by the head of her fitted sheet. The sheets were very thin and "see-through".

Observations of Resident 64's bed on December 4, 2025, at 11:02 a.m. revealed that there was a hole approximately 3 mm in size in the bottom of his fitted sheet, and his sheets were very thin and "see-through".

Interview with the Director of Laundry on December 5, 2025, at 10:49 a.m. revealed that they were able to use sheets with holes as long as the hole was no bigger than the eraser tip of a pencil.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 5, 2025, at 10:56 a.m. confirmed that the sheets with holes should have been thrown out and not used.

28 Pa. Code 201.29(j) Resident rights.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

The insects were cleaned off the window sill of 100 hall lounge/dining area on December 3rd 2025.

Resident 18 and Resident's 64's sheets were changed at time of occurrence and linens with holes discarded.

Housekeeping staff to be educated on policy of providing a safe and homelike environment for residents.

Laundry staff to be educated on facility rag out policy

The housekeeping supervisor will complete random weekly audits on random windowsills to include all three units x 4 weeks

The housekeeping supervisor will complete random weekly audits to random resident's sheets to ensure housekeeping rag out policy is being followed x 4 weeks

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facilities Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initial audits are completed and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and guidance via facility Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective for ongoing compliance.

483.10(e)(1), 483.12(a)(2), 483.45(c)(3)(d)(e) REQUIREMENT Right to be Free from Chemical Restraints:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.10(e) Respect and Dignity.
The resident has a right to be treated with respect and dignity, including:

§483.10(e)(1) The right to be free from any . . . chemical restraints
imposed for purposes of discipline or convenience, and not required to treat the
resident's medical symptoms, consistent with §483.12(a)(2).

§483.12
The resident has the right to be free from abuse, neglect, misappropriation of
resident property, and exploitation as defined in this subpart. This includes but is
not limited to freedom from corporal punishment, involuntary seclusion and any
physical or chemical restraint not required to treat the resident's medical
symptoms.
§483.12(a) The facility must-. . .
§483.12(a)(2) Ensure that the resident is free from . . . chemical restraints
imposed for purposes of discipline or convenience and that are not required to treat the resident's medical symptoms.
. . . .
§483.45(c)(3) A psychotropic drug is any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories:
(i) Anti-psychotic;
(ii) Anti-depressant;
(iii) Anti-anxiety; and
(iv) Hypnotic.

§483.45(d) Unnecessary drugs-General. Each resident's drug regimen must be free from unnecessary drugs. An unnecessary drug is any drug when used-
(1) In excessive dose (including duplicate drug therapy); or
(2) For excessive duration; or
(3) Without adequate monitoring; or
(4) Without adequate indications for its use; or
(5) In the presence of adverse consequences which indicate the dose should be reduced or discontinued; or
(6) Any combinations of the reasons stated in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section.

§483.45(e) Psychotropic Drugs. Based on a comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that--

§483.45(e)(1) Residents who have not used psychotropic drugs are not given these drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record;

§483.45(e)(2) Residents who use psychotropic drugs receive gradual dose reductions, and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs;

§483.45(e)(3) Residents do not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication is necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that is documented in the clinical record; and

§483.45(e)(4) PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days. Except as provided in §483.45(e)(5), if the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes that it is appropriate for the PRN order to be extended beyond 14 days, he or she should document their rationale in the resident's medical record and indicate the duration for the PRN order.

§483.45(e)(5) PRN orders for anti-psychotic drugs are limited to 14 days and cannot be renewed unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner evaluates the resident for the appropriateness of that medication.
Observations:

Based on a review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that residents medication regime was free from unnecessary psychotropic medication (drugs that affect a person's mental state, emotions, and behavior) for one of 35 residents reviewed (Resident 4).

Findings include:

The facility's policy for the use of psychotropic medications, dated March 13, 2025, indicated that psychotropic medications used on an as needed (PRN) basis must have a diagnosed specific condition and indication for the PRN use documented in the resident's medical record and was subject to the limitations as noted: PRN orders for psychotropic medications, excluding antipsychotics, shall be limited to no more than 14 days, unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes it is appropriate to extend the order beyond the 14 days. The medical record should include documentation from the physician or prescriber for the rationale for the extended time period and indicate a specific duration.

An admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a federally mandated assessment of the resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 4, dated September 13, 2025, indicated that the resident was cognitively impaired, received antidepressant and antianxiety medications (psychotropic medications), and had diagnoses that included dementia, depression, and anxiety.

Physician's orders for Resident 4, dated October 2, 2025, included an order for the resident to receive 0.5 milligrams (mg) of Xanax (a psychotropic medication used to treat anxiety) every twelve hours as needed for anxiety.

Review of the Medication Administration Record (MAR) for Resident 4, dated October 2025, revealed that 0.5 mg of Xanax was administered to the resident on October 19 at 5:03 p.m.; October 21 at 3:51 p.m.; October 23 at 11:29 a.m.; and October 26 at 1:23 p.m.

There was no was duration included in the physician's order and no documented evidence from a physician or prescriber to indicate the rationale to extend the as needed medication beyond 14 days.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025, at 11:01 a.m. confirmed that there was no duration included in the physician's order on October 2, 2025, and no documented evidence from a physician or prescriber to indicate the rationale to extend the as needed Xanax for Resident 4 beyond 14 days.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(5) Nursing Services.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

Resident 35 had no ill effects related to not having a 14 day stop date added to her as needed Xanax order.

The physician was updated regarding Resident 35 not having a 14 day stop date on her as needed Xanax order.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform a baseline audit of all PRN psychotropic medications to ensure there is a 14 day stop date or a justification for there not being a stop date. The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform weekly audits of all new as needed psychotropic medications to ensure there is a 14 day stop date. Audits will continue x 4 weeks.

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facility's Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initials are completed, and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and the guidance via Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective and for ongoing compliance.

483.15(c)(2)(iii)(3)-(6)(8)(d)(1)(2); 483.21(c)(2)(i)-(iii) REQUIREMENT Discharge Process:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.15(c)(2) Documentation.
When the facility transfers or discharges a resident under any of the circumstances specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(A) through (F) of this section, the facility must ensure that the transfer or discharge is documented in the resident's medical record and appropriate information is communicated to the receiving health care institution or provider.
(iii) Information provided to the receiving provider must include a minimum of the following:
(A) Contact information of the practitioner responsible for the care of the resident.
(B) Resident representative information including contact information
(C) Advance Directive information
(D) All special instructions or precautions for ongoing care, as appropriate.
(E) Comprehensive care plan goals;
(F) All other necessary information, including a copy of the resident's discharge summary, consistent with §483.21(c)(2) as applicable, and any other documentation, as applicable, to ensure a safe and effective transition of care.

§483.15(c)(3) Notice before transfer.
Before a facility transfers or discharges a resident, the facility must-
(i) Notify the resident and the resident's representative(s) of the transfer or discharge and the reasons for the move in writing and in a language and manner they understand. The facility must send a copy of the notice to a representative of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.
(ii) Record the reasons for the transfer or discharge in the resident's medical record in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
(iii) Include in the notice the items described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section.

§483.15(c)(4) Timing of the notice.
(i) Except as specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) and (c)(8) of this section, the notice of transfer or discharge required under this section must be made by the facility at least 30 days before the resident is transferred or discharged.
(ii) Notice must be made as soon as practicable before transfer or discharge when-
(A) The safety of individuals in the facility would be endangered under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(C) of this section;
(B) The health of individuals in the facility would be endangered, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section;
(C) The resident's health improves sufficiently to allow a more immediate transfer or discharge, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section;
(D) An immediate transfer or discharge is required by the resident's urgent medical needs, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section; or
(E) A resident has not resided in the facility for 30 days.

§483.15(c)(5) Contents of the notice. The written notice specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section must include the following:

(i) The reason for transfer or discharge;
(ii) The effective date of transfer or discharge;
(iii) The location to which the resident is transferred or discharged;
(iv) A statement of the resident's appeal rights, including the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the entity which receives such requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form and assistance in completing the form and submitting the appeal hearing request;
(v) The name, address (mailing and email) and telephone number of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman;
(vi) For nursing facility residents with intellectual and developmental disabilities or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with developmental disabilities established under Part C of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-402, codified at 42 U.S.C. 15001 et seq.); and
(vii) For nursing facility residents with a mental disorder or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with a mental disorder established under the Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act.

§483.15(c)(6) Changes to the notice.
If the information in the notice changes prior to effecting the transfer or discharge, the facility must update the recipients of the notice as soon as practicable once the updated information becomes available.

§483.15(c)(8) Notice in advance of facility closure
In the case of facility closure, the individual who is the administrator of the facility must provide written notification prior to the impending closure to the State Survey Agency, the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, residents of the facility, and the resident representatives, as well as the plan for the transfer and adequate relocation of the residents, as required at § 483.70(l).

§483.15(d) Notice of bed-hold policy and return-

§483.15(d)(1) Notice before transfer. Before a nursing facility transfers a resident to a hospital or the resident goes on therapeutic leave, the nursing facility must provide written information to the resident or resident representative that specifies-
(i) The duration of the state bed-hold policy, if any, during which the resident is permitted to return and resume residence in the nursing facility;
(ii) The reserve bed payment policy in the state plan, under § 447.40 of this chapter, if any;
(iii) The nursing facility's policies regarding bed-hold periods, which must be consistent with paragraph (e)(1 ) of this section, permitting a resident to return; and
(iv) The information specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.

§483.15(d)(2) Bed-hold notice upon transfer. At the time of transfer of a resident for hospitalization or therapeutic leave, a nursing facility must provide to the resident and the resident representative written notice which specifies the duration of the bed-hold policy described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

§483.21(c)(2) Discharge Summary
When the facility anticipates discharge, a resident must have a discharge summary that includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(i) A recapitulation of the resident's stay that includes, but is not limited to, diagnoses, course of illness/treatment or therapy, and pertinent lab, radiology, and consultation results.
(ii) A final summary of the resident's status to include items in paragraph (b)(1) of §483.20, at the time of the discharge that is available for release to authorized persons and agencies, with the consent of the resident or resident's representative.
(iii) Reconciliation of all pre-discharge medications with the resident's post-discharge medications (both prescribed and over-the-counter).
Observations:

Based on review of clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to notify the resident and the resident's representative, in writing regarding the reason for transfer to the hospital, to ensure that a bed-hold notice was provided to the resident's responsible party and that the ombudsman was notified of the transfer to the hospital, for three of 35 residents reviewed (Residents 9, 40, 46).

Findings include:

A quarterly minimum data set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 9, dated September 10, 2025, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for all daily care needs, and had diagnoses that included heart failure and end stage kidney disease.

A nursing note for Resident 9, dated February 2, 2025, at 11:48 a.m. revealed that the resident had increased weakness and was slow to respond at dialysis, and the resident was being sent to the emergency room. A nursing note dated July 4, 2025, at 10:06 a.m. revealed that the resident was bleeding profusely at the dialysis site and was being sent to the emergency room. A nursing note dated October 8, 2025, at 10:28 a.m. revealed that the resident's fistula site was unable to be accessed during dialysis and the resident was being sent to the emergency room. A nursing note dated November 5, 2025, at 5:43 p.m. revealed that the resident's surgical site was bleeding profusely and she was being sent to the emergency room. A nursing note dated November 24, 2025, at 3:30 a.m. revealed that the resident was having redness around her port site and was not feeling herself and was being sent to the emergency room.
There was no documented evidence that written notification of transfer to the hospital was provided to Resident 9 or the resident's representative, no documented evidence that a bed-hold notice was provided to the resident's responsible party, and no documented evidence that the ombudsman was notified of her transfer to the hospital on the above dates and times as required.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025, at 11:18 a.m. confirmed there was no written notification of hospital transfer provided to the resident or their representative, that a bed-hold notice was not provided to their responsible party, and that the ombudsman was not notified of the transfer to the hospital on the above dates and times as required.

An annual MDS assessment for Resident 40, dated September 15, 2025, indicated that the resident was cognitively impaired, required substantial assistance from staff for all daily care needs, and had diagnoses that included high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and dementia.

A nursing note for Resident 40, dated June 9, 2025, at 10:53 a.m., revealed that the resident was having a large amount of bleeding from his urinary catheter, and hernias and tenderness in his abdomen, and was sent to the emergency room.

There was no documented evidence that written notification of transfer to the hospital was provided to the resident's representative, no documented evidence that a bed-hold notice was provided to the resident's responsible party, and no documented evidence that the ombudsman was notified of her transfer to the hospital on the above date and time as required.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 46, dated October 20, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired and required maximum assistance from staff for daily care needs.

A nursing note for Resident 46, dated July 18, 2025, at 6:25 p.m., revealed that the resident was found on the floor and was very disoriented, and was sent to the emergency room for evaluation.

There was no documented evidence that written notification of transfer to the hospital was provided to the resident's representative, no documented evidence that a bed-hold notice was provided to the resident's responsible party, and no documented evidence that the ombudsman was notified of her transfer to the hospital on the above date and time as required.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, at 2:54 p.m. confirmed that for Residents 40 and 46 there was no written notification of hospital transfers provided to the resident's representative or ombudsman, and that a bed hold notice was not provided.

28 Pa. Code 201.29(j) Resident Rights.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

No ill effects to residents 9, 40, 46 related to failure to provide bed hold policy upon transfer to hospital to resident/residents responsible party, to ensure written bed hold notice was provided and that the ombudsman was notified of the transfer to the hospital.

An audit of November's discharges was completed by the social services director and a corrected list was sent to the ombudsman on 12/3/25.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform a baseline audit of any hospital transfers that took place in the last 7 days to ensure written notification and bed hold policy were provided.

The Licensed Nursing staff will be educated on bed hold policy notification to resident/resident's responsible party upon transfer to the hospital

The social services director will be educated on completion of the written bed hold notification to the resident/resident's representative and notification of the ombudsman of transfer to the hospital.

The Director of Nursing or designee will complete random weekly audits x 4 weeks of resident hospital transfers to assure that bed hold notification to resident/ resident's Responsible Party was completed upon discharge to the hospital

The Social Services Director will complete random weekly audits x 4 weeks of hospital transfers to assure that written bed hold notification was made to resident/resident's representative and transfer is recorded for ombudsman notification.

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facilities Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initial audits are completed and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and guidance via facility Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective for ongoing compliance.

483.20(b)(2)(ii) REQUIREMENT Comprehensive Assessment After Signifcant Chg:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.20(b)(2)(ii) Within 14 days after the facility determines, or should have determined, that there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purpose of this section, a "significant change" means a major decline or improvement in the resident's status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions, that has an impact on more than one area of the resident's health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan, or both.)
Observations:

Based on review of the Resident Assessment Instrument User's Manual and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that comprehensive significant change Minimum Data Set assessments were completed in the required time frame for two of 35 residents reviewed (Residents 14 and 102).

Findings include:

The Long-Term Care Facility Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI) User's Manual, which provides instructions and guidelines for completing required Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessments (mandated assessments of a resident's abilities and care needs), dated October 2025, indicated that the Assessment Reference Date (ARD) was to be no later than the 14th calendar day after determination that a significant change in the resident's status occurred (determination date + 14 calendar days) and the significant change comprehensive MDS assessment was to be completed no later than the 14th calendar day after determination that significant a change in the resident's status occurred (determination date + 14 calendar days).

Review of the clinical record for Resident 14 revealed that a significant change in condition was identified on September 25, 2025 and the resident was admitted to hospice services with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's.

A significant change MDS assessment for Resident 14, dated October 1, 2025, revealed that the MDS was documented in section Z0500B as being completed on October 13, 2025, which was five days late.

Interview with the Registered Nurse Assessment Coordinator (RNAC - a registered nurse who is responsible for the completion of MDS assessments) on December 4, 2025, at 2:59 p.m. confirmed that the significant change comprehensive MDS assessment for Resident 14 should have been completed by October 8, 2025, and it was not.

Review of the clinical record for Resident 102 revealed that a significant change in condition was identified on November 18, 2025 and the resident was admitted to hospice services with a diagnosis of vascular dementia.

A significant change MDS for Resident 102, dated December 1, 2025, revealed that the MDS was not signed in section Z0500B as completed.

Interview with the Registered Nurse Assessment Coordinator on December 4, 2025, at 2:39 p.m. confirmed that the significant change MDS assessment for Resident 102 should have been completed by December 1, 2025, and was still in progress.

28 Pa. Code 211.5(f) Clinical Records.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

No ill effects related to resident 14 and resident 102 related to failure to ensure that comprehensive significant change Minimum Data Set assessments were completed within required timeframe.

The Regional Minimum Data Set assessment coordinator or desginee will educate the Registered Nurse Assessment Coordinator on the Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI) guidelines of completion timeframes to include determination date of significant change plus 14 calendar days.

The Registered Nurse Assessment Coordinator or designee will complete a basline audit of any open significant change assessments appropriate determination date and completion dates are identified.

The Registered Nurse Assessment Coordinator or designee will complete random weekly audits x 4 weeks on any significant change assessments to assure they are completed timely from determination date.

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facilities Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initial audits are completed and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and guidance via facility Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective for ongoing compliance.

483.25 REQUIREMENT Quality of Care:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§ 483.25 Quality of care
Quality of care is a fundamental principle that applies to all treatment and care provided to facility residents. Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that residents receive treatment and care in accordance with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' choices.
Observations:

Based on review of clinical records and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to follow physician's orders to notify the physician of changes in weight for a resident with edema (fluid retention in body tissues) for one of 35 resident's reviewed (Resident 34), and failed to ensure that medications were provided as ordered by the physician for one of 35 residents reviewed (Resident 62).

Findings include:

An admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 34, dated September 26, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, required assistance for care needs, received a diuretic (water pill) medication, and had a diagnosis that included heart failure (the heart can't pump blood as well as it should causing weight gain due to fluid to build up in the lungs and lower legs).

Physician's orders for Resident 34, dated November 12, 2025, included an order for the staff to weigh the resident daily for weight gain/increase in edema and to notify the physician for a weight gain of greater than three pounds.

A review of Resident 34's clinical record and Treatment Administration Record (TAR) for November 2025, revealed that the resident's weight on November 19 was 195.3 pounds and the resident's weight on November 20 was 203.2 pounds, indicating a 7.9 pound weight gain. The resident's weight on November 23 was 193.7 pounds and the resident's weight on November 24 was 203.2 pounds, indicating a 9.5 pound weight gain. The resident's weight on November 27 was 203.6 pounds and the resident's weight on November 28 was 208.8 pounds, indicating a 5.2 pound weight gain. There was no documented evidence that the physician was notified of the resident's weight gain of greater than three pounds on November 20, November 24 and November 28.

An interview with the Director of Nursing on December 3, 2025, at 11:18 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence that the physician was notified of Resident 34's weight gain of greater than three pounds on November 20, November 24 and November 28.

An annual MDS assessment for Resident 62, dated September 18, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance for care needs, and had a diagnosis that included high blood pressure.

Physician's orders for Resident 62, dated October 31, 2025, included an order for the resident to receive 12.5 milligrams (mg) of metoprolol daily and to hold the medication if the pulse was less than 55.

A review of Resident 62's Medication Administration Record (MAR) for November 2025, revealed that the resident's pulse was 53 on November 26, 2025, and 42 on November 28, 2025, and metoprolol was administered.

An interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025, at 1:18 p.m. confirmed that the metoprolol was administered on the above dates and times and should not have been.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(1)(3)(5) Nursing services.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

Residents 34 and 35 had no ill effects related to staff failing to notify the physician of a weight gain and for failing to provide medications as ordered.

The physician was notified regarding Resident 34 having a significant weight gain and of Resident 35 being provided medications outside the prescribed order.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform a baseline audit of all weight orders and orders containing hold parameters to ensure the medications were given as prescribed, and the physician was updated per orders.

Licensed Nursing staff will be educated following physicians orders
The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform weekly audits of any new orders with parameters to ensure the order is being followed as prescribed. Audits will continue x 4 weeks.

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facility's Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initials are completed, and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and the guidance via Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective and for ongoing compliance.

483.25(e)(1)-(3) REQUIREMENT Bowel/Bladder Incontinence, Catheter, UTI:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.25(e) Incontinence.
§483.25(e)(1) The facility must ensure that resident who is continent of bladder and bowel on admission receives services and assistance to maintain continence unless his or her clinical condition is or becomes such that continence is not possible to maintain.

§483.25(e)(2)For a resident with urinary incontinence, based on the resident's comprehensive assessment, the facility must ensure that-
(i) A resident who enters the facility without an indwelling catheter is not catheterized unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that catheterization was necessary;
(ii) A resident who enters the facility with an indwelling catheter or subsequently receives one is assessed for removal of the catheter as soon as possible unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that catheterization is necessary; and
(iii) A resident who is incontinent of bladder receives appropriate treatment and services to prevent urinary tract infections and to restore continence to the extent possible.

§483.25(e)(3) For a resident with fecal incontinence, based on the resident's comprehensive assessment, the facility must ensure that a resident who is incontinent of bowel receives appropriate treatment and services to restore as much normal bowel function as possible.
Observations:


Based on review of clinical records, as well as observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that an updated order was obtained for the correct foley size available for urinary catheterization (a flexible tube inserted into the bladder to drain urine) was completed as ordered for one of 31 residents reviewed (Resident 40).

Findings include:

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 40 dated September 15, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, required assistance for care needs, and had a diagnosis of neurogenic bladder (a bladder dysfunction causing urinary incontinence or retention).

Physician's orders for Resident 40, dated April 30, 2024, included an order for the resident to use an 18 french (size) foley catheter with a 30cc balloon, and may use a 5-10cc balloon if a 30cc balloon was not available.

A nursing note for Resident 40, dated October 30, 2025, at 2:03 a.m. revealed that the resident's catheter was not able to be flushed and a 16 french 30cc foley catheter was inserted.

Interview with Licensed Practical Nurse 2 on December 3, 2025, at 10:48 a.m. revealed that if they run out of the foley catheter, a provider was to be notified, and a new order obtained.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025, at 11:49 a.m. confirmed that the provider should have been notified that the ordered catheter was not available and a new order should have been obtained.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(5) Nursing Services.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

Resident 40 suffered no ill effects related to having a catheter placed outside the prescribed foley size.

The physician was notified regarding the resident having his foley replaced with a different size other than what was ordered.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform a baseline audit of all foley orders to ensure the size ordered matches what is currently placed in the resident.

Licensed staff will be educated on Following Physicians Orders to include physician notification for alternative foley size if there is unavailability of supplies.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform weekly audits of all documentation of foley changes to ensure the foley in the resident matches the foley size stated in the order. Audits will continue x 4 weeks.

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facility's Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initials are completed, and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and the guidance via Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective and for ongoing compliance.

483.25(h) REQUIREMENT Parenteral/IV Fluids:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§ 483.25(h) Parenteral Fluids.
Parenteral fluids must be administered consistent with professional standards of practice and in accordance with physician orders, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the resident's goals and preferences.
Observations:

Based on review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to flush an intravenous catheter (a thin tube inserted into a vein to administer medications and/or fluids) per facility policy for one of 35 residents reviewed (Resident 34).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding intravenous catheter flushing, dated March 13, 2025, indicated that catheters were to be flushed at regular intervals to maintain patency, before and after administration of medications. Staff were to use only preservative free 0.9 % sodium chloride for saline flushes (a mixture of water and salt, with a salt concentration of 0.9%).

An admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 34, dated September 26, 2025, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, required assistance for care needs, received an antibiotic and intravenous medications, and had a diagnosis that included Osteomyelitis (an infection of the bone).

Physician's orders for Resident 34, dated November 4, 2025, included an order for the resident to receive two grams (gm) of Ceftriaxone (an antibiotic) intravenously daily for five days.

A review of Resident 34's Medication Administration Record (MAR), dated November 2025, revealed that staff administered the two gm of Ceftriaxone intravenously daily on November 4 and 5, 2025; however, there was no documented evidence that Resident 34's intravenous line was flushed with saline solution before and after the administration of the Ceftriaxone.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 3, 2025, at 11:18 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence that Resident 34's intravenous line was flushed with a saline solution before and after the administration of the Ceftriaxone.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(1)(5) Nursing Services.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

Resident 35 suffered no ill effects related to staff failing to flush the intravenous catheter per orders and/or policy.

The physician was updated regarding the facility failing to flush the resident's intravenous catheter per orders and/or policy.

Licensed Nursing Staff to be educated on Intravenous policy to include orders for flushing intravenous lines

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform a baseline audit of all intravenous orders to ensure the flush orders are entered per policy.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will perform a weekly audit of all intravenous orders to ensure the flush orders are entered per policy. Audits will continue x 4 weeks.

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facility's Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initials are completed, and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and the guidance via Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective and for ongoing compliance.

483.25(m) REQUIREMENT Trauma Informed Care:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.25(m) Trauma-informed care
The facility must ensure that residents who are trauma survivors receive culturally competent, trauma-informed care in accordance with professional standards of practice and accounting for residents' experiences and preferences in order to eliminate or mitigate triggers that may cause re-traumatization of the resident.
Observations:

Based on clinical record review and staff interview, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that residents were assessed and received trauma-informed care to eliminate or mitigate triggers for residents with the diagnosis of Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) (a mental and behavioral disorder that develops related to a terrifying event) for one of 35 residents reviewed (Resident 8).

Findings include:

A Quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 8, dated November 3, 2025, indicated that the resident was cognitively impaired, was dependent on staff for daily care needs, and had diagnoses that included depression, anxiety, and PTSD. A review of Resident 46's care plan, dated August 13, 2024, indicated that the resident had PTSD, anxiety, and Traumatic Brain Injury.

There was no documented evidence the facility identified Resident 8's specific triggers that could re-traumatize the resident or implement measures as to how facility staff could prevent or minimize triggers from occurring.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on December 4, 2025, at 2:15 p.m. revealed that she believed Resident 8 did not trigger PTSD and if the doctor thought it was a real diagnosis the resident would have been reassessed for it quarterly.

Interview with the Medical Director on December 4, 2025, at 2:12 p.m. revealed that Resident 8 was admitted with the diagnosis of PTSD and that she was told by the family that the resident was diagnosed with it years ago. The medical director further stated that she believes the daughter would know the resident better than anyone.

28 Pa Code 201.24(e)(4) Admission Policy.

28 Pa Code 211.12(a)(d)(3)(5) Nursing Services.

28 Pa. Code 211.16(a) Social Services.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

No ill effects noted related to failure to ensure that resident was assessment was completed for trauma related diagnosis

A trauma assessment will be completed on resident 8

A baseline audit of resident's diagnoses will completed to identify any trauma related diagnoses and assure that quarterly assessments are completed in order to identify resident specific triggers.

The Social Services Director will be educated on Trauma informed care in accordance of professional standards of practice in order to eliminate or mitigate triggers that may cause retraumatization

The Social services Director or designee will complete random weekly audits x 4 weeks of all new admissions for trauma related diagnoses and assure that assessments are completed

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facilities Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initial audits are completed and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and guidance via facility Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective for ongoing compliance.

483.75(c)(1)-(4)d)(1)(2)(e)(1)-(3)(g)(2)(ii)(iii) REQUIREMENT QAPI/QAA Improvement Activities:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.75(c) Program feedback, data systems and monitoring.
A facility must establish and implement written policies and procedures for feedback, data collections systems, and monitoring, including adverse event monitoring. The policies and procedures must include, at a minimum, the following:

§483.75(c)(1) Facility maintenance of effective systems to obtain and use of feedback and input from direct care staff, other staff, residents, and resident representatives, including how such information will be used to identify problems that are high risk, high volume, or problem-prone, and opportunities for improvement.

§483.75(c)(2) Facility maintenance of effective systems to identify, collect, and use data and information from all departments, including but not limited to the facility assessment required at §483.71 and including how such information will be used to develop and monitor performance indicators.

§483.75(c)(3) Facility development, monitoring, and evaluation of performance indicators, including the methodology and frequency for such development, monitoring, and evaluation.

§483.75(c)(4) Facility adverse event monitoring, including the methods by which the facility will systematically identify, report, track, investigate, analyze and use data and information relating to adverse events in the facility, including how the facility will use the data to develop activities to prevent adverse events.

§483.75(d) Program systematic analysis and systemic action.

§483.75(d)(1) The facility must take actions aimed at performance improvement and, after implementing those actions, measure its success, and track performance to ensure that improvements are realized and sustained.

§483.75(d)(2) The facility will develop and implement policies addressing:
(i) How they will use a systematic approach to determine underlying causes of problems impacting larger systems;
(ii) How they will develop corrective actions that will be designed to effect change at the systems level to prevent quality of care, quality of life, or safety problems; and
(iii) How the facility will monitor the effectiveness of its performance improvement activities to ensure that improvements are sustained.

§483.75(e) Program activities.

§483.75(e)(1) The facility must set priorities for its performance improvement activities that focus on high-risk, high-volume, or problem-prone areas; consider the incidence, prevalence, and severity of problems in those areas; and affect health outcomes, resident safety, resident autonomy, resident choice, and quality of care.

§483.75(e)(2) Performance improvement activities must track medical errors and adverse resident events, analyze their causes, and implement preventive actions and mechanisms that include feedback and learning throughout the facility.

§483.75(e)(3) As part of their performance improvement activities, the facility must conduct distinct performance improvement projects. The number and frequency of improvement projects conducted by the facility must reflect the scope and complexity of the facility's services and available resources, as reflected in the facility assessment required at §483.71. Improvement projects must include at least annually a project that focuses on high risk or problem-prone areas identified through the data collection and analysis described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.

§483.75(g) Quality assessment and assurance.

§483.75(g)(2) The quality assessment and assurance committee reports to the facility's governing body, or designated person(s) functioning as a governing body regarding its activities, including implementation of the QAPI program required under paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. The committee must:

(ii) Develop and implement appropriate plans of action to correct identified quality deficiencies;
(iii) Regularly review and analyze data, including data collected under the QAPI program and data resulting from drug regimen reviews, and act on available data to make improvements.
Observations: Based on review of the facility's plans of correction for previous surveys, and the results of the current survey, it was determined that the facility's Quality Assurance Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee failed to correct quality deficiencies and ensure that plans to improve the delivery of care and services effectively addressed recurring deficiencies. Findings include: The facility's deficiencies and plan of corrections for an annual survey ending October 3, 2024, revealed that the facility developed plans of correction that included quality assurance systems to ensure that the facility-maintained compliance with cited nursing home regulations. The results of the current survey, ending December 4, 2025, identified repeated deficiencies related to a homelike environment and safe and sanitary food storage. The facility's plan of correction for a deficiency regarding a homelike environment cited during the survey ending October 3, 2024, revealed that the facility would complete audits and report the results of the audits to the QAPI committee for review. The results of the current survey, cited under F584, revealed that the facility's QAPI committee failed to successfully implement their plan regarding a homelike environment. The facility's plan of correction for a deficiency regarding safe and sanitary food storage cited during the survey ending October 3, 2024, revealed that the facility would complete audits and report the results of the audits to the QAPI committee for review. The results of the current survey, cited under F812, revealed that the facility's QAPI committee failed to successfully implement their plan regarding safe and sanitary food storage. Refer to F584, F812. 28 Pa. Code 201.14(a) Responsibility of Licensee. 28 Pa. Code 201.18(e)(1) Management.
 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

No ill effects noted to residents related to repeat deficient practice of failure to maintain compliance related to providing a safe, clean, homelike environment and failure to store, prepare, and serve food in a sanitary manner.

The facility will develop a Quality Assurance Performance Improvement plan to implement guidelines including the Quality Assurance Steering committee with utilization of Performance Improvement Projects. The facility will identify audits for completion including internal benchmarks to evaluate quality of care metrics. The Quality Assurance Steering Committee meets quarterly to review metrics and make necessary recommendations for changes in facility policy and procedures as needed.

The Regional Director of clinical services and/or designee will re-educate the Administrator on ensuring plans to improve the delivery of care and services are effectively addressed to prevent recurring deficiencies. Administrator and/or designee will re-educate Quality Assurance Steering Committee regarding the facility's Quality assurance performance improvement committee plan.

The Facility will complete their quarterly Quality Assurance Steering Committee and submit their minutes to the Administrator for review and guidance.Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facility's Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Quality Assurance Steering Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initial audits are completed and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and guidance via facility Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI).

§ 201.22(a) LICENSURE Prevention, control and surveillance of tuber:State only Deficiency.
(a) The facility shall have a written TB infection control plan with established protocols which address risk assessment and management, screening and surveillance methods, identification, evaluation, and treatment of residents and employees who have a possible TB infection or active TB.

Observations:


Based on a review of CDC guidelines, as well as observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to implement CDC policy and procedure for screening and surveillance of tuberculosis for one of five new employees reviewed Nurse Aide 3.

Findings include:

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommendations (https://www.cdc.gov/tb-healthcare-settings/hcp/screening) last updated December 15, 2023, stipulates that all U.S. health care personnel should be screened for TB upon hire (i.e., preplacement) by either a TB blood test or a two-step TB skin test. Information from the baseline individual TB risk assessment should be used to interpret the results of a TB blood test or TB skin test given upon hire (i.e., preplacement). Health care personnel with a positive TB test result should receive a symptom evaluation and a chest x-ray to rule out TB disease. If a previous documented negative TB results in less than 12 months before new employment is provided only a single test is required.

The personnel file for Nurse Aide 3 revealed that she was hired on October 28, 2025. She received a PPD test on September 30, 2025, and there was no documentation of a second step completed prior to hire and no documentation of a previously documented negative TB result.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on December 4, 2025 , at 1:25 p.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence to indicate that Nurse Aide 3 completed one of the two PPD's required prior to employment.








 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 01/22/2026

The Administrator and/or designee will perform a baseline audit of all new hires within the last week to ensure the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) policy and procedure for screening and surveillance of tuberculosis is completed per guidelines.

The department managers will be educated to assure that the 2-step tuberculosis testing is completed prior to hire and returned to administrator to place in employee record.

The Administrator and/or designee will perform random weekly audits of new hires to ensure the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) policy and procedure for screening and surveillance of tuberculosis is completed per guidelines. Audits will continue x 4 weeks.

Results of the audits will be reported and trended to the facility's Quality Assurance Steering Committee. The Committee will determine the frequency of the audits after the initials are completed, and results are reviewed according to the trends recommendations and the guidance via Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Plan (QAPI). The Quality Assurance Committee will continue to monitor quarterly that the process was effective and for ongoing compliance.


Back to County Map


  
Home : Press Releases : Administration
Health Planning and Assessment : Office of the Secretary
Health Promotion and Disease Prevention : Quality Assurance



Copyright © 2001 Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. All Rights Reserved.
Commonwealth of PA Privacy Statement

Visit the PA Power Port