Pennsylvania Department of Health
ST. ANNE HOME
Patient Care Inspection Results

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ST. ANNE HOME
Inspection Results For:

There are  122 surveys for this facility. Please select a date to view the survey results.

Surveys don't appear on this website until at least 41 days have elapsed since the exit date of the survey.
ST. ANNE HOME - Inspection Results Scope of Citation
Number of Residents Affected
By Deficient Practice
Initial comments:Based on a Medicare/Medicaid Recertification, State Licensure, Civil Rights Compliance and a complaint survey completed on July 30, 2026, it was determined that Saint Anne Home was not in compliance with the following requirements of 42 CFR Part 483, Subpart B, Requirements for Long Term Care Facilities and the 28 PA Code, Commonwealth of Pennsylvania Long Term Care Licensure Regulations. 
 Plan of Correction:


483.60(d)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Nutritive Value/Appear, Palatable/Prefer Temp:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency but was found to be widespread throughout the facility and/or has the potential to affect a large portion or all the residents.  This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.60(d) Food and drink
Each resident receives and the facility provides-

§483.60(d)(1) Food prepared by methods that conserve nutritive value, flavor, and appearance;

§483.60(d)(2) Food and drink that is palatable, attractive, and at a safe and appetizing temperature.
Observations:


Based on review of facility policies, observations, and resident and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to serve food that was palatable and at safe and appetizing temperatures.


Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding food temperatures, dated May 29, 2026, indicated that all hot foods were to be cooked to appropriate internal temperatures, held, and served at an appropriate temperature.
Interview with Resident 2 on July 27, 2026, at 2:39 p.m. revealed that "the food is garbage, the vegetables are mush and meat is tough".

Observations in Claire Courtyard unit for the lunch meal service on July 29, 2026, at 11:47 a.m., revealed the lunch meal consisted of a turkey cutlet or beef tips, a baked sweet potato, and tomato bisque. The last resident to be served in the dining room was at 12:22 p.m. The test tray on July 29, 2026, at 12:33 p.m. revealed that the temperature of the turkey cutlet was 124.5 degrees (F), beef tips were 124.6 degrees (F) baked sweet potato was 142.0 degrees (F) and the tomato bisque was 123.5 degree (F). The tomato bisque and beef tips were not served at the appropriate temperature, and the beef tips were tough to chew and unpalatable.

Interview with Culinary Director on July 27, 2026, at 12:57 p.m. confirmed that the tomato bisque was cold and beef tips were cold and difficult to chew.

28 Pa. Code 211.6(f) Dietary Services.







 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0804 – Nutritive Value/Appearance, Palatable/Prefer Temperatures
1. R2 will be interviewed by the Dietitian/designee to review food preferences and to review menu choices for the upcoming week.
2. The Culinary Director/designee will review the Food Committee meeting minutes for the past two months (June and July) and summarize their recommendations related to palatability of food and food temperatures.
The Culinary Director/designee and Administrator/designee will meet with members of the Food Committee to get feedback on the past two weeks of meals regarding the palatability of the food and the food temperatures.
3. The Culinary Director/designee will educate the dietary staff on F0804.
Eight Residents per week will be interviewed by the Culinary Director/designee for feedback on the palatability of the food for 4 weeks.
Temperatures for 5 test trays will be taken per week by the Culinary Director/designee for 4 weeks.
4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.60(i)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Food Procurement,Store/Prepare/Serve-Sanitary:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency but was found to be widespread throughout the facility and/or has the potential to affect a large portion or all the residents.  This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.60(i) Food safety requirements.
The facility must -

§483.60(i)(1) - Procure food from sources approved or considered satisfactory by federal, state or local authorities.
(i) This may include food items obtained directly from local producers, subject to applicable State and local laws or regulations.
(ii) This provision does not prohibit or prevent facilities from using produce grown in facility gardens, subject to compliance with applicable safe growing and food-handling practices.
(iii) This provision does not preclude residents from consuming foods not procured by the facility.

§483.60(i)(2) - Store, prepare, distribute and serve food in accordance with professional standards for food service safety.
Observations:

Based on review of policies, as well as observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to store and prepare food under sanitary conditions.

Findings include:

The facility's policy for food storage, dated May 29, 2026, revealed that all opened and partially used foods shall be dated, labeled and sealed before being returned to the storage area. The head cook or designee shall be responsible for checking the refrigerator daily for food items that are expiring and shall discard accordingly. The dining service department along with housekeeping is assigned responsibility for monitoring the designated refrigerator and discarding outdated foods daily. Other staff may also monitor and discard food as appropriate.

The facility's policy for dietary employee personal hygiene dated May 29, 2026, revealed that all dietary staff must wear hair restraints (hairnet, hat, and/or beard restraint) to prevent hair from contacting food.

Observations in the kitchen dry storage on July 27, 2026, at 09:19 a.m. revealed that there was a quarter bottle of olive oil opened and undated with no lid and covered with an unsecured piece of plastic wrap, a half-full gallon of Worcestershire sauce that was opened and undated, and a three quarter- full gallon of cooking sherry that was opened and undated.

Observations in the kitchenette on David Garden on July 27, 2026, at 12:07 p.m. revealed a half-full half gallon of almond milk opened and undated, a bag of unidentifiable leftover food in to-go containers with an expiration date of July 9, 2026.

Observations in the kitchenette on Claire Courtyard on July 27, 2026, at 12:19 p.m. revealed six peanut butter and jelly sandwiches and two tuna fish sandwiches with a use by date of July 22, 2026, two containers of applesauce with a use by date of July 22, 2026, a yogurt with a use by date of July 25, 2026, a quart of skim milk full opened and undated, and a quart of 2% milk half full opened and undated.

Observations in the main kitchen on July 28, 2026, at 12:49 p.m. of Kitchen Staff 5 chopping green peppers and not wearing a beard guard with a fully exposed beard approximately one inch long; Kitchen Staff 6 plating food and not wearing a beard guard, with a fully exposed beard that was approximately four inches long; Kitchen Staff 7 preparing food and not wearing a hair guard with a fully exposed moustache; Kitchen Staff 8 who was not wearing a beard guard, with a fully exposed beard approximately one inch long; and observations in the kitchen on July 29, 2026 at 11:49 a.m. revealed Kitchen Staff 9 with a hairnet that only covered her ponytail, leaving approximately four inches of bangs exposed in the front.

Interview with the Culinary Director on July 28, 2026, at 12:56 p.m. and July 29, 2026, at 12:10 p.m. confirmed that food items should be labeled and dated properly, expired items should be thrown out, and staff should be wearing beard guards and hairnets properly.

28 Pa. Code 211.6(f) Dietary Services.







 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0812 – Procure food from sources approved or considered satisfactory by federal, state or local authorities
1. The items that were opened and not labeled or dated during the survey were discarded. The staff identified during the survey as not having the proper hair coverings on were instructed to put them on. The Culinary Director provided education to the dietary staff of the guidelines.
2. All food refrigerators in the kitchen and in the resident unit kitchens were audited for having open and undated items. Any items found will be discarded immediately.
3. The Culinary Director/designee will educate the dietary staff on F0812.
Refrigerators in the kitchen will be audited by the Cook/designee 5 times per week for 2 weeks then 3 times per week for 2 weeks.
Refrigerators on the 8 nursing units will be audited by the Culinary Director/designee 3 times per week for 4 weeks.
4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.10(i)(1)-(7) REQUIREMENT Safe/Clean/Comfortable/Homelike Environment:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.10(i) Safe Environment.
The resident has a right to a safe, clean, comfortable and homelike environment, including but not limited to receiving treatment and supports for daily living safely.

The facility must provide-
§483.10(i)(1) A safe, clean, comfortable, and homelike environment, allowing the resident to use his or her personal belongings to the extent possible.
(i) This includes ensuring that the resident can receive care and services safely and that the physical layout of the facility maximizes resident independence and does not pose a safety risk.
(ii) The facility shall exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft.

§483.10(i)(2) Housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a sanitary, orderly, and comfortable interior;

§483.10(i)(3) Clean bed and bath linens that are in good condition;

§483.10(i)(4) Private closet space in each resident room, as specified in §483.90 (e)(2)(iv);

§483.10(i)(5) Adequate and comfortable lighting levels in all areas;

§483.10(i)(6) Comfortable and safe temperature levels. Facilities initially certified after October 1, 1990 must maintain a temperature range of 71 to 81°F; and

§483.10(i)(7) For the maintenance of comfortable sound levels.
Observations: Based on observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to provide a clean and home-like environment. Findings include: The facility's cleaning policy, dated May 29, 2026, indicated that all resident rooms including floors and common areas including the dining area are to be swept daily. Observations of the Claire courtyard common area on July 27, at 12:30 p.m. and 2:30 p.m.; July 28, 2026, at 12:32 p.m. and 2:45 p.m. revealed that there was a moderate to large amount of dust, dirt, crumbs and debris located around the perimeter floor/wall of the common area and outside room C108. A plastic spoon was located under a chair on the floor in the common area. In addition, on July 28, 2026, at 10:00 a.m. and 2:45 p.m. there were observations under the dining table of approximately 3 quarter sized pieces of yellow eggs. Interview with Housekeeper 1 on July 28, 2026, at 3:02 p.m. confirmed that there was a large amount of dust, dirt and debris along with a plastic spoon under the chair, and eggs under the table that should not be on the floor in the Clair courtyard common area. She indicated that they have four staff in the facility today for eight nursing units, and that her priority is the resident rooms. That she cleaned up to 75 resident rooms in one day and that when she started at the facility two years ago, there were 7 staff for eight units. She further indicated that she is working as fast as she can to keep her nursing units clean, and that the staff on the units also contribute to her workload by not picking up after themselves. Observations of Resident 163 room on July 27, 2026, at 1:36 p.m. and July 28, 2026, at 8:09 a.m. revealed that the resident was seated in his wheelchair and there were potato chip crumbs and a piece of chocolate on the floor on both occasions. Interview with Housekeeper 1 on July 28, 2026, at 11:26 a.m. revealed that she is aware she is not cleaning like she should be and she is missing things due to the fact they are short staffed. She has two and a half units to clean herself, and can't keep up with the job. She confirmed that the floor of Resident 163's room was dirty and should have been cleaned. Interview with the Maintenance/Housekeeping Supervisor on July 29, 2026, at 8:13 a.m. confirmed that the facility should be clean and it was not. He indicated that each staff currently has two units to clean and that they had one staff member leave two weeks ago, and that he has added a weekend shift to help. 28 Pa. Code 201.29(j) Resident Rights. 28 Pa. Code 207.2(a) Administrator's Response .
 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

Preparation and/or execution of this plan of correction does not constitute admission or agreement by the provider of the truth of the facts alleged or conclusions set forth in the statement of deficiencies. The plan of correction is prepared and/or executed solely because it is required by the provisions of federal and state law.

F0584 – Safe/Clean/Comfortable/Homelike Environment
1. The Clare Courtyard common area cleanliness concerns identified by the surveyor were addressed by the Maintenance Supervisor immediately after learning of the concerns.
2. An initial audit of all resident rooms and common areas was completed by the Director of Plant Operations/designee to identify locations that require a focus for cleaning. Any identified areas will be addressed immediately.
3. The housekeepers will be educated by the Director of Plant Operations/designee on a checklist to follow for cleaning resident rooms.
The maintenance and housekeeping staff will be educated on F0584 by the Director of Plant Operations/designee.
The Plant Operations Director/designee will audit 20 resident rooms each week and each common area twice per week for 4 weeks.
4. A summary of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.12(b)(5)(i)(A)(B)(c)(1)(4) REQUIREMENT Reporting of Alleged Violations:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.12(c) In response to allegations of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or mistreatment, the facility must:

§483.12(c)(1) Ensure that all alleged violations involving abuse, neglect, exploitation or mistreatment, including injuries of unknown source and misappropriation of resident property, are reported immediately, but not later than 2 hours after the allegation is made, if the events that cause the allegation involve abuse or result in serious bodily injury, or not later than 24 hours if the events that cause the allegation do not involve abuse and do not result in serious bodily injury, to the administrator of the facility and to other officials (including to the State Survey Agency and adult protective services where state law provides for jurisdiction in long-term care facilities) in accordance with State law through established procedures.

§483.12(c)(4) Report the results of all investigations to the administrator or his or her designated representative and to other officials in accordance with State law, including to the State Survey Agency, within 5 working days of the incident, and if the alleged violation is verified appropriate corrective action must be taken.
Observations:

Based on review of facility policy, resident clinical record, and staff interviews it was determined that the facility failed to report an allegation of abuse for one of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 4).

Findings include:

Review of facility policy for Protection and Prevention Against Resident Abuse, Neglect, and Exploitation dated May 29, 2026,indicated that residents have the right to be free from any verbal, sexual, physical, and mental abuse, corporal punishment, involuntary seclusion, exploitation and misappropriation of resident property. Residents must not be subjected to abuse by anyone including, but not limited to facility staff, other residents, consultants, or volunteers, staff or other agencies serving the individual, family members or legal guardians, friends or other individuals. All staff shall report any systeped residenr abuse, neglect, exploitation, mistreatment or misappropriation of resident property to their supervisor, the director of nursing, the administrator, the corporate compliance officer of via the compliance hot line.

A Significant Change Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 4, dated May 2, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, was sometimes understood and could sometimes understand others, was dependent on staff for daily care needs, and had diagnosis that included dementia.

A nursing note for Resident 4 dated May 23, 226 at 1:00 p.m. revealed that the resident was slapped by another resident while sitting in the dining area, and she became weepy.

A review of the clinical records revealed that there was no documented evidence that the incident was reported to their immediate supervisor, the director of nursing, the administrator, or the corporate compliance officer.

Interview with the director of nursing on July 29, 2026, at 9:44 a.m. revealed that he was not made aware of the above incident, and that staff should have reported the incident per policy so that an investigation could have been conducted.

28 Pa Code: 201.14 (a) (c) Responsibility of management

28 Pa Code: 201.18 (b)(1) Management.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

1. The report on allegation of abuse for R4 will be filed with the Pennsylvania Department of Health and Adult Protective Services.

2. Director of Nursing/designee will audit resident incidents from April 1, 2026, to ensure alleged violations were appropriately reported.

3. A directed in-service will be provided on August 19, 2026, to the Administrator, Director of Nursing, Assistant Director of Nursing and Registered Nurse Supervisors on F0609 (Reporting of Alleged Violations).

Director of Nursing/designee will audit 24-hour report and incident/accident reports 5 times per week for 4 weeks to ensure alleged violations are appropriately reported.
4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.15(c)(2)(iii)(3)-(6)(8)(d)(1)(2); 483.21(c)(2) REQUIREMENT Discharge Process:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.15(c)(2) Documentation.
When the facility transfers or discharges a resident under any of the circumstances specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(A) through (F) of this section, the facility must ensure that the transfer or discharge is documented in the resident's medical record and appropriate information is communicated to the receiving health care institution or provider.
(iii) Information provided to the receiving provider must include a minimum of the following:
(A) Contact information of the practitioner responsible for the care of the resident.
(B) Resident representative information including contact information
(C) Advance Directive information
(D) All special instructions or precautions for ongoing care, as appropriate.
(E) Comprehensive care plan goals;
(F) All other necessary information, including a copy of the resident's discharge summary, consistent with §483.21(c)(2) as applicable, and any other documentation, as applicable, to ensure a safe and effective transition of care.

§483.15(c)(3) Notice before transfer.
Before a facility transfers or discharges a resident, the facility must-
(i) Notify the resident and the resident's representative(s) of the transfer or discharge and the reasons for the move in writing and in a language and manner they understand. The facility must send a copy of the notice to a representative of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.
(ii) Record the reasons for the transfer or discharge in the resident's medical record in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
(iii) Include in the notice the items described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section.

§483.15(c)(4) Timing of the notice.
(i) Except as specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) and (c)(8) of this section, the notice of transfer or discharge required under this section must be made by the facility at least 30 days before the resident is transferred or discharged.
(ii) Notice must be made as soon as practicable before transfer or discharge when-
(A) The safety of individuals in the facility would be endangered under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(C) of this section;
(B) The health of individuals in the facility would be endangered, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section;
(C) The resident's health improves sufficiently to allow a more immediate transfer or discharge, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section;
(D) An immediate transfer or discharge is required by the resident's urgent medical needs, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section; or
(E) A resident has not resided in the facility for 30 days.

§483.15(c)(5) Contents of the notice. The written notice specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section must include the following:

(i) The reason for transfer or discharge;
(ii) The effective date of transfer or discharge;
(iii) The location to which the resident is transferred or discharged;
(iv) A statement of the resident's appeal rights, including the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the entity which receives such requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form and assistance in completing the form and submitting the appeal hearing request;
(v) The name, address (mailing and email) and telephone number of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman;
(vi) For nursing facility residents with intellectual and developmental disabilities or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with developmental disabilities established under Part C of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-402, codified at 42 U.S.C. 15001 et seq.); and
(vii) For nursing facility residents with a mental disorder or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with a mental disorder established under the Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act.

§483.15(c)(6) Changes to the notice.
If the information in the notice changes prior to effecting the transfer or discharge, the facility must update the recipients of the notice as soon as practicable once the updated information becomes available.

§483.15(c)(8) Notice in advance of facility closure
In the case of facility closure, the individual who is the administrator of the facility must provide written notification prior to the impending closure to the State Survey Agency, the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, residents of the facility, and the resident representatives, as well as the plan for the transfer and adequate relocation of the residents, as required at § 483.70(l).

§483.15(d) Notice of bed-hold policy and return-

§483.15(d)(1) Notice before transfer. Before a nursing facility transfers a resident to a hospital or the resident goes on therapeutic leave, the nursing facility must provide written information to the resident or resident representative that specifies-
(i) The duration of the state bed-hold policy, if any, during which the resident is permitted to return and resume residence in the nursing facility;
(ii) The reserve bed payment policy in the state plan, under § 447.40 of this chapter, if any;
(iii) The nursing facility's policies regarding bed-hold periods, which must be consistent with paragraph (e)(1 ) of this section, permitting a resident to return; and
(iv) The information specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.

§483.15(d)(2) Bed-hold notice upon transfer. At the time of transfer of a resident for hospitalization or therapeutic leave, a nursing facility must provide to the resident and the resident representative written notice which specifies the duration of the bed-hold policy described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

§483.21(c)(2) Discharge Summary
When the facility anticipates discharge, a resident must have a discharge summary that includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(i) A recapitulation of the resident's stay that includes, but is not limited to, diagnoses, course of illness/treatment or therapy, and pertinent lab, radiology, and consultation results.
(ii) A final summary of the resident's status to include items in paragraph (b)(1) of §483.20, at the time of the discharge that is available for release to authorized persons and agencies, with the consent of the resident or resident's representative.
(iii) Reconciliation of all pre-discharge medications with the resident's post-discharge medications (both prescribed and over-the-counter).
Observations:


Based on review of policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to notify the resident and the resident's representative, in writing regarding the reason for transfer to the hospital, and to ensure that the ombudsman was notified of the transfer to the hospital, for seven of 38 residents reviewed (Residents 1, 4, 7, 12, 76, 100, 144).

Findings include: 2

The facility's policy regarding ombudsman notification, dated May 29, 2026, indicated that the ombudsman would be notified on a monthly basis of any emergent facility initiated discharge or transfer.

The facility did not provide a policy regarding providing a written notice to the resident and the resident's representative upon transfer to the hospital.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 1, dated May 21, 2026, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for all daily care needs, and had a diagnoses that included malignant neoplasm of the bladder.

Nursing notes for Resident 1, dated May 2, 2026, at 4:37 p.m., revealed that the resident presented with an altered mental status and blood in his urine, he was transferred to the hospital and was admitted

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 4 dated February 14, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, required partial assistance from staff for daily care needs and had medical diagnoses that included dementia.

A nursing note for Resident 4 dated April 2026, at 12:24 pm revealed that the resident was nonverbal and lethargic, and she was sent to the emergency room for evaluation.

Review of Resident 4's clinical record revealed that there was no documented evidence that the ombudsman, and resident and/or resident representative were notified in writing of the purpose for the resident's transfer regarding her hospitalization on April 20, 2026.

A quarterly MDS for Resident 7 dated January 6, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact and required assistance from staff for daily care needs.

A nursing note for Resident 7 dated March 5, 2026, at 3:13 p.m. revealed the resident had an unwitnessed fall, was sent to the hospital for evaluation and was admitted.

Review of Resident 7's clinical record revealed that there was no documented evidence that the ombudsman, and resident and/or resident representative were notified in writing of the purpose for the resident's transfer regarding her hospitalization on March 5,2026.

An admission MDS for Resident 12 dated June 29, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact and required assistance from staff for daily care needs.

A nursing note for Resident 12 dated July 27, 2026, at 12:27 p.m. revealed the resident had a change in condition, was sent to the hospital for evaluation and was admitted.

Review of Resident 12's clinical record revealed that there was no documented evidence that the ombudsman, and resident and/or resident representative were notified in writing of the purpose for the resident's transfer regarding his hospitalization on July 27, 2026.

A quarterly MDS for Resident 76 dated June 30, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact and required assistance from staff for daily care needs.

A nursing note for Resident 76 dated July 12, 2026, at 1:30 p.m. revealed the resident had difficulty swallowing, was sent to the hospital for evaluation and was admitted.

A nursing note for Resident 76 dated July 17, 2026, at 4:29 p.m. revealed the resident continued to have difficulty swallowing, was sent to the hospital for evaluation and was admitted.

Review of Resident 76's clinical record revealed that there was no documented evidence that the ombudsman, and resident and/or resident representative were notified in writing of the purpose for the resident's transfer regarding her hospitalization on July 12, 17, 2026.

A quarterly MDS for Resident 100 dated April 29, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired and was dependent on staff for daily care needs.

A nursing note for Resident 100 dated April 22, 2026, at 9:58 a.m. revealed the resident had difficulty breathing, was sent to the hospital for evaluation and was admitted.

A nursing note for Resident 100 dated October 26, 2026, at 11:39 p.m. revealed the resident had a choking episode, was sent to the hospital for evaluation and was admitted.

Review of Resident 100's clinical record revealed that there was no documented evidence that the ombudsman, and resident and/or resident representative were notified in writing of the purpose for the resident's transfer regarding her hospitalizations on April 22 and October 26, 2026.

A quarterly MDS for Resident 144 dated April 1, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, was dependent on staff for daily care needs.

A nursing note for Resident 144 dated May 23, 2026, at 5:03 a.m. revealed the resident had a large amount of blood in her brief and was being sent to the emergency room for evaluation.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 29, 2026, at 2:12 p.m. confirmed that for Residents 1, 4, 7, 12, 76, 100, 144, there was no written notification of hospital transfer provided to them or their representatives, and that the ombudsman was not notified of the transfer to the hospital as required.

28 Pa. Code 201.29(j) Resident Rights.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0628 – Discharge Process
1. Due to the time periods and circumstances of the residents identified during the annual survey, letters cannot be issued.

2. An audit will be completed by the administrator of the residents who are currently in the hospital due to a transfer prior to August 3, 2026, and the letters will be delivered/mailed to the residents/representatives and the ombudsman.

3. The administrator/designee will provide education on the Emergent Transfer/Discharge process to the social services and admissions staff.

Weekly audits will be conducted for 4 weeks by the Administrator/designee of the Emergent Transfers/ Discharges verifying that the letters were delivered/mailed to the residents/representative and the ombudsman.

4. The monthly listing of the Emergent Transfers/Discharges will be sent to the State LTC-Ombudsman by the Administrator.

A summary of the weekly audits will be compiled and reported by the Administrator in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meeting for 3 months.

483.24(a)(2) REQUIREMENT ADL Care Provided for Dependent Residents:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.24(a)(2) A resident who is unable to carry out activities of daily living receives the necessary services to maintain good nutrition, grooming, and personal and oral hygiene;
Observations:

Based on review of facility policies, clinical records, and shower schedules, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that residents were provided with showers as scheduled for one of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 19).

Findings include:

The facility policy for showering/bathing dated May 29, 2026, indicated that it is facility policy to safely shower/whirlpool tub bath residents and provide comfort and cleanliness. If it is identified that a resident is unable to shower/bath, the resident refuses the shower/bath or requests another time for a shower/bath notify the unit supervisor. The unit supervisor will discuss the bath/shower with the resident and/or make another arrangement for the shower/whirlpool for the resident. Documentation will be entered into the electronic medical record for the reason a bath/shower was not given or other arrangements/preferences that have been made.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 19, dated May 8, 2026, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for daily care needs, had no behaviors, and had diagnoses that included left sided hemiplegia (complete or partial loss of function on one side of the body) following a stroke.
Care plan for Resident 19 dated May 5, 2026, indicated that the resident had a bathing preference for showers.

A review of the nurse aide bathing documentation for Resident 19 dated April 2025, May 2025, June 2025, and July 2025 revealed that the resident was to receive a shower every Saturday. Nurse aide documentation revealed that the resident received a bed bath on April 25, May 2, 9, 15, 30, June 6, 27, and July 25. He received a sponge bath on July 4 . There was no evidence that the resident was offered or refused a shower on these dates or any alternative dates. Review of the bathing documentation also revealed that on April 11 and July 11, the shower was documented as "not applicable". There was no evidence that the resident was offered, provided or refused a shower on these dates or any alternative dates.

An interview with Resident 19 on July 29, 2026, at 1:52 p.m. revealed that he cannot remember when he was last offered a shower because they don't get him out of bed, however if they did offer him a shower, he would reluctantly agree to get a shower.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 30, 2026, at 1:36 p.m. confirmed there was no documented evidence that Resident 19 was offered or refused showers according to his care schedule during the above-mentioned dates, or any alternative dates.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(5) Nursing services.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0677 – Care Provided for Dependent Residents
1. R19 was offered and received a shower, and resident preference has been updated.

2. Director of Nursing/designee will audit resident records for shower preferences and refusals.

3. DON/designee will educate clinical nursing staff on documentation of resident preferences and refusals.

DON/designee will audit 10 resident charts per week for 4 weeks to ensure shower schedules are maintained and refusals are documented and addressed.

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.



483.25 REQUIREMENT Quality of Care:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§ 483.25 Quality of care
Quality of care is a fundamental principle that applies to all treatment and care provided to facility residents. Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that residents receive treatment and care in accordance with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' choices.
Observations:

Based on review of policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that physician's orders for medications were followed for two of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 4, 76 ).

Findings include:

A significant change Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 4, dated May 2, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired and required assistance from staff for all daily care needs, and had medical diagnoses that included diabetes. A care plan for Resident 4 dated January 8, 2026, revealed that diabetes medication was to be administered per the physician's orders.

A physician's note for Resident 4, dated June 20, 2026, at 9:21 p.m. revealed that the resident's blood sugar check is to be completed later between 8:00 p.m. and 9:00 p.m. due to the belief that the blood sugars are not accurate, and are indicative of a post meal blood sugar and not a true bedtime blood sugar resulting in the resident receiving an inaccurate dose of insulin.

Physician's orders for Resident 4, dated June 20, 2026, revealed that the resident was to receive NovoLog insulin injection solution 100 unit/milliliter and inject as per sliding scale: if blood glucose read 0-60 give glucose substitute and recheck, 61-200 = 0 units, 201-250 = 2 units, 251-300 4 units, 301-350 = 6 units, 351-400 = 8 units, 401-501 = 10 units, 451+= 10 units recheck in 2 hours subcutaneously before meals and at bedtime. Bedtime blood glucose monitoring to be completed between 8:00 p.m. and 9:00 p.m.

Review of the clinical records for Resident 4 revealed that the blood glucose monitoring was completed on June 22, 2026, at 7:27 p.m., July 3, 2026, at 7:57 p.m., on July 5, 2026, at 7:29 p.m., on July 6, 2026, at 7:29 p.m., on July 7, 2026, at 7:25 p.m., on July 10, 2026, at 7:48 p.m., on July 11, 2026, at 7:15 p.m., on July 16, 2026, at 7:11 p.m., on July 17, 2026, at 7:19 p.m., on July 21, 2026, at 7:40 p.m., on July 22, 2026, at 7:21 p.m., on July 24, 2026, at 7:28 p.m., on July 25, 2026, at 7:18 p.m., on July 27, 2026, at 7:06 p.m., on July 28, 2026, at 7:44 p.m.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 29, 2026 at 9:44 a.m. confirmed that the blood glucose monitoring was completed early and not per physician's orders on the above dates and times.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 76, dated June 30, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for daily care needs, and had diagnoses that included congestive heart failure (a condition where the heart can not pump blood efficiently).

Physician's orders for Resident 76, dated October 21, 2025, included an order for the resident to be weighed daily via chair scale.

Review of Resident 76's clinical record revealed that there was no documented evidence that Resident 76's weight was obtained on June 6, 11, 13, 21 and 26, 2026.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 28, 2026 at 12:15 p.m. confirmed that Resident 76's weights were to not obtained per physician's orders on the above dates and they should have been.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(3) Nursing services.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0684 – Quality of Care
1. R4 has been discharged from the facility.

Weights for R76 cannot be corrected retroactively.

2. Director of Nursing/designee will audit resident charts for orders pertaining to daily weights and specialized insulin schedules to ensure compliance with the orders.

3. Director of Nursing/designee will educate clinical nursing staff on daily weight compliance and specialized insulin schedules.

Director of Nursing/designee will audit 24-hour report and Order recap list daily 5 times per week for 4 weeks to ensure new orders for daily weights and specialized insulin schedules are complaint.

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.25(c)(1)-(3) REQUIREMENT Increase/Prevent Decrease in ROM/Mobility:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.25(c) Mobility.
§483.25(c)(1) The facility must ensure that a resident who enters the facility without limited range of motion does not experience reduction in range of motion unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that a reduction in range of motion is unavoidable; and

§483.25(c)(2) A resident with limited range of motion receives appropriate treatment and services to increase range of motion and/or to prevent further decrease in range of motion.

§483.25(c)(3) A resident with limited mobility receives appropriate services, equipment, and assistance to maintain or improve mobility with the maximum practicable independence unless a reduction in mobility is demonstrably unavoidable.
Observations:

Based on review of facility policy and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure a resident with limited mobility receives appropriate services, equipment, and assistance to maintain or improve mobility for one of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 6).

Findings include:

Review of the facility policy for Restorative Nursing Programs dated May 29, 2026, revealed that it is the policy of the facility to provide maintenance and restorative services designed to maintain or improve a resident's abilities to the highest practicable level. "Restorative nursing program" refers to nursing interventions that promote the resident's ability to adapt and adjust as independently and safely as possible. This concept actively focuses on achieving and maintaining optimal physical , mental, and psychosocial functioning. The interdisciplinary team, with the support of and guidance from the physician, will assure the ongoing review, evaluation, and decision making regarding the services needed to maintain or improve resident's abilities in accordance with the resident's comprehensive assessment goals and preferences.

Review of the Facility Assessment (comprehensive, documented evaluation that a facility must conduct to determine the resources needed to competently care for its residents during day-to-day operations and emergencies ) dated April 25, 2026, indicated that the type of care that the resident population required and that the facility provided for the resident population included transfers, ambulation, restorative nursing and contracture prevention/care.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 6, dated May 16, 2026, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required supervision or touching assistance with transfers and ambulation, and had diagnoses that included heart failure.

Physician's orders for Resident 6 dated November 14, 2026, included for the resident to be discharged from physical therapy services and to refer to restorative nursing program for ambulation with a wheeled walker.

Care plan for Resident 6 dated October 24, 2025, indicated that the resident had the potential for decline in range of motion (how far you can move or stretch a part of your body) due to low back pain and that active range of motion (a structured set of exercises where a patient moves their joints independently using their own muscle strength without any external help) was to be provided to all extremities twice a day, six to seven days a week for at least 15 minutes. The resident was to ambulate up to 100 feet with a front wheeled walker and contact guard assist. Staff were to report any significant decline in ambulation to the Restorative Coordinator and reassess quarterly and as needed.

Review of nurse aid documentation and Treatment Administration Records for Resident 6 dated April 2026 through July 2026, revealed no documented evidence that the resident was provided active range of motion or assistance with ambulation.

Interview with Resident 6 on July 27, 2026, at approximately 10:30 a.m. revealed that she sometimes takes a walk in the hall with her walker, it depends on what staff are available to help her.

Interview with the Occupational Therapist on July 30, 2026, at 1:55 p.m. revealed that the facility previously had an active restorative nursing program, however it does not currently have a restorative nursing program in place. No active range of motion or ambulation orders where put into place for Resident 6 because there is no restorative nursing program. Staff are verbally educated on the functional level of the resident upon discharge from therapy services and therapy relies heavily on staff reporting any decline with the resident to therapy so they can be reevaluated.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 30, 2026, at 3:22 p.m. revealed that the facility does not currently have a restorative nursing program in place, however there should be an active restorative nursing program in place.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(3)(5) Nursing services.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0688 – Increase/Prevent Decrease in ROM/Mobility
1. R6 will be evaluated by therapy for ongoing recommendations on range of motion and ambulation.

2. Long-term residents will be screened by therapy at least quarterly with their Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment cycle and recommendations will be written.

3. Director of Nursing/designee will educate therapy, clinical nursing staff and MDS coordinators in the process for evaluating, writing recommendations and providing assistance with range of motion and ambulation.

Director of Therapy/designee will maintain an ongoing audit of residents screened, and recommendations written

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.25(d)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Free of Accident Hazards/Supervision/Devices:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.25(d) Accidents.
The facility must ensure that -
§483.25(d)(1) The resident environment remains as free of accident hazards as is possible; and

§483.25(d)(2)Each resident receives adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent accidents.
Observations:

Based on clinical record reviews, observations, and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure a safe environment for three of 38 residents reviewed (Residents 4, 13, 100).

Findings include:

A comprehensive minimum data set (MDS) assessment (mandated to assess the resident abilities and care needs) for Resident 4, dated January 18, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, was occasionally incontinent of urine, used a manual wheelchair, and required partial assistance to transfer from the bed to a chair. The resident's care plan, updated April 9, 2026, revealed that the resident had actual falls and required her wheelchair to be placed at her bedside facing the bed with brakes locked when the resident is in bed.

A nursing note for resident 4 following a fall, dated April 10, 2026, at 9:54 a.m. revealed that the new intervention for fall prevention is to place the resident's wheelchair at bedside facing her bed with brakes locked when the resident is in bed.

A nursing note for resident 4 following a fall, dated April 17, 2026, at 12:00 p.m. indicated that Resident 4 was observed lying on the floor beside her bed on her right side. A bruise was observed to her right cheek, and staff were educated to keep the wheelchair at bedside locked when the resident was resting while in bed.

A nursing note for Resident 4 dated April 17, 2026, at 1:23 p.m. revealed the resident had complaints of knee pain in both the right and left knees, and new orders were received for X-rays for both legs.

A nursing note for Resident 4 dated April 17, 2026, at 5:44 p.m. revealed the resident was complaining of right leg pain and new orders were received for an X-ray of the right hip.

A nursing note for Resident 4 dated April 20, 2026, at 12:34 p.m. revealed that the medical director was in to see the resident and review laboratory results. The resident was non-verbal and not acting herself. The resident was sent to the emergency room for evaluation.

A nursing note for Resident 4 dated April 20, 2026, at 4:23 p.m. revealed that the resident was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of fall and altered mental status, and fractured pelvis.

An interview with the Assistant Director of Nursing and Director of Nursing on July 30, 2026, at 9:33 a.m. revealed that the care plan should not have been updated on April 9, 2026, to reflect that her intervention was to place the wheelchair by her bed after the resident's fall; however, there was no documented evidence the intervention was in error and no documented evidence of another fall intervention being put in place.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 13, dated June 26, 2026, revealed that the resident was severely cognitively impaired and needed extensive assistance for all of his care, and had diagnoses that included cerebral palsy with profound intellectual disorders. The resident's care plan, revised on July 1, 2026, revealed that the resident was at risk for falls and was to have dycem (a rubber-like material used to prevent slipping) above and below the seat cushion on his wheelchair.

Physician's orders for Resident 13, dated July 1, 2026, included an order to have dycem above and below the residents wheel chair seat cushion.

Observations on July 28, 2026, at 2:41 p.m. and July 29, 2026, at 9:53 p.m. revealed that Resident 13's wheel chair had dycem above his seat cushion, but none below as ordered.

An interview with Licensed Practical Nurse 1 on July 29, 2026, at 1:56 p.m. revealed that there was no dycem below the residents wheelchair seat cushion, and there should have been.

An interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on July 29, 2026, at 3:23 p.m. confirmed that Resident 13 should have had dycem above and below his seat cushion as ordered and care planned, and he did not.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 100, dated April 29, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, and was dependent on staff for daily care needs. A care plan dated October 21, 2025, revealed that the resident was at risk for pressure injuries related to decreased mobility.

Physician's orders for Resident 100 dated July 14, 2026, included an order for an air mattress to be in place on her bed.

Review of Resident 100's clinical record revealed that here was no documented evidence that the use of an air mattress was assessed for potential safety hazards prior to the air mattress being placed on Resident 100's bed.

An interview with the Director of Nursing on July 30, 2026, at 10:34 confirmed that Resident 100 did not have an assessment completed regarding potential safety hazards prior to the air mattress being placed on her bed.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(5) Nursing services.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0689 – Free of Accident Hazards/Supervision/Devices
1. R4 was discharged from the facility.

R13 had dycem applied per order.

R100 had an air mattress assessment completed.

2. Director of Nursing/designee will audit facility residents for current physical fall interventions and proper placement and residents with air mattresses to ensure devices and assessments are in place.

3. Director of Nursing/designee will educate clinical nursing staff on monitoring of physical fall interventions.

Director of Nursing/designee will educate licensed nursing staff on completion of air mattress assessments.

Director of Nursing/designee will audit 24-hour report and order recap daily 5 times per week for 4 weeks to capture additions of fall interventions and air mattresses ensuring the interventions are in place and that air mattresses have been assessed.

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.25(h) REQUIREMENT Parenteral/IV Fluids:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§ 483.25(h) Parenteral Fluids.
Parenteral fluids must be administered consistent with professional standards of practice and in accordance with physician orders, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the resident's goals and preferences.
Observations:

Based on review of facility policy, clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that physician orders were obtained for intravenous (IV) therapy and orders to flush IV catheters (small tube inserted into a vein to deliver fluids or medication) were not obtained for two of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 17, 76).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding IV therapy, dated May 29, 2026, revealed that physician orders are obtained before starting IV therapy and flushing is performed by attaching a 10 milliliter (ml) syringe of normal saline to confirm patency of vascular access device before and after medication administration.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a federally-mandated assessment of the resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 17, dated June 30, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact and had a midline intravenous catheter (a soft, medium-length tube inserted into a vein in the upper arm, generally used for one to four weeks) to treat osteomyelitis (infection of the bone).

Physician's orders for Resident 17, dated July 13, 2026, included orders to administer 2 grams (gm) of Meropenem (an antibiotic) twice a day day thru July 28, 2026.

Review of Resident 17's Medication Administration Records (MAR's) for July 2026, revealed that there was no documented evidence of an order to flush the midline and no evidence that staff flushed the midline IV catheter before and after the medication administration.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 76, dated June 30, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact and was required assistance for daily care needs.

Observations on July 28, 2026, at 11:14 a.m. revealed that Resident 76 had an IV site in her right forearm.
A nursing note for Resident 76, dated July 25, 2026 7:07 p.m. revealed that an IV heparin lock (an IV catheter that is capped off with a port) 22 gauge was inserted into her right forearm.

Review of Resident 76's Medication Administration Records (MAR's) for July 2026 revealed no documented evidence that a physician order was obtained for IV therapy and flush orders were not obtained.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 29, 2026, at 8:45 a.m. confirmed that physician orders should have been obtained for Resident 17 and 76 before starting IV therapy and flush orders should have been obtained.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(1)(5) Nursing services.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0694 – Parenteral/Intravenous (IV)Fluids
1. R17 Peripheral Inserted Central Catheter (PICC) line was discontinued.

R76 peripheral IV was discontinued.

2. Director of Nursing/designee will audit residents with IV lines to ensure orders for flushes and site monitoring are present.

3. Director of Nursing/designee will educate licensed nursing staff on proper ordering and documentation of IV lines including flush orders and site monitoring.

Director of Nursing/designee will monitor 24-hour report and order recap daily for additions to IV therapy 5 times per week for 4 weeks.

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.25(m) REQUIREMENT Trauma Informed Care:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.25(m) Trauma-informed care
The facility must ensure that residents who are trauma survivors receive culturally competent, trauma-informed care in accordance with professional standards of practice and accounting for residents' experiences and preferences in order to eliminate or mitigate triggers that may cause re-traumatization of the resident.
Observations: Based on clinical record review and staff interview, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that residents were assessed and received trauma-informed care to eliminate or mitigate triggers for residents with the diagnosis of Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) (a mental and behavioral disorder that develops related to a terrifying event) for one of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 2). Findings include: A Quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 2, dated May 27, 2026, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, was dependent on staff for daily care needs, and had diagnoses that included PTSD. A review of Resident 2's care plan, dated October 17, 2025, indicated that the resident had PTSD related to laying on the floor for days. There was no documented evidence the facility identified Resident 2's specific triggers that could re-traumatize the resident or implement measures as to how facility staff could prevent or minimize triggers from occurring. Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 29, 2026, at 3:39 p.m. revealed that the resident was seen by a psychiatrist at the facility and had a new diagnosis of PTSD and the assessment for triggers should have been completed at that time. 28 Pa Code 201.24(e)(4) Admission Policy. 28 Pa Code 211.12(a)(d)(3)(5) Nursing Services. 28 Pa. Code 211.16(a) Social Services.
 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0699 – Trauma Informed Care
1. R2 had trauma assessment completed.

2. Social Service Director/designee will audit resident charts for residents who have triggered for Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) to ensure assessments and care plans are completed and updated with any new information found.

3. Director of Nursing/designee will educate licensed nursing staff and Social Services on obtaining trauma assessments including triggers and updating the care plans.

Social Service Director/designee will audit new admissions 5 times per week for 4 weeks to ensure any additional cases of PTSD are addressed accordingly.

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.45(c)(1)(2)(4)(5) REQUIREMENT Drug Regimen Review, Report Irregular, Act On:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.45(c) Drug Regimen Review.
§483.45(c)(1) The drug regimen of each resident must be reviewed at least once a month by a licensed pharmacist.

§483.45(c)(2) This review must include a review of the resident's medical chart.

§483.45(c)(4) The pharmacist must report any irregularities to the attending physician and the facility's medical director and director of nursing, and these reports must be acted upon.
(i) Irregularities include, but are not limited to, any drug that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (d) of this section for an unnecessary drug.
(ii) Any irregularities noted by the pharmacist during this review must be documented on a separate, written report that is sent to the attending physician and the facility's medical director and director of nursing and lists, at a minimum, the resident's name, the relevant drug, and the irregularity the pharmacist identified.
(iii) The attending physician must document in the resident's medical record that the identified irregularity has been reviewed and what, if any, action has been taken to address it. If there is to be no change in the medication, the attending physician should document his or her rationale in the resident's medical record.

§483.45(c)(5) The facility must develop and maintain policies and procedures for the monthly drug regimen review that include, but are not limited to, time frames for the different steps in the process and steps the pharmacist must take when he or she identifies an irregularity that requires urgent action to protect the resident.
Observations:

Based on review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to respond to a pharmacy recommendation for two of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 4, 5).

Findings include:

A facility policy related to medication regimen review, dated May 29, 2026, indicated that the consultant pharmacist will conduct medication regimen reviews (MRRs) and will make recommendations based on the information made available in the residents' health record. The consultant pharmacist will provide the residents' MRRs to the facility identified personnel who will ensure that the attending physician, medical director, and other necessary facility staff receive the recommendations.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 4, dated June 13, 2026, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, required maximum assistance with care needs, received insulin, and had diagnoses of hypertension (high blood pressure), heart failure, kidney failure, and diabetes.

A pharmacy medication regimen review fax for Resident 4, dated April 27, 2026, indicated that irregularities/recommendations were noted, and that a physician's order for ergocalciferol 200 micrograms/milliliter and to give 2 drop by mouth and bedtime was to be clarified to reflect the dose as 2 dropperful = 2 milliliter = 400 micrograms. There was no documented evidence in the residents' clinical record that the order was clarified.

A comprehensive MDS for Resident 5, dated June 29, 2021, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, was usually understood and could usually understand, had medical diagnoses of high blood pressure, heart failure, kidney failure, and diabetes, and received antipsychotic medications.

A review of the clinical record for Resident 5 revealed that the resident was on a pureed or mechanical soft diet, and pills were to be crushed in applesauce for administration.

A pharmacy medication regimen review for Resident 5, dated January 29, 2026, revealed that "do not crush" was to be added to medication orders for 125 milligram (mg) divalproex DR (a delayed release medication to treat seizures), 20 mg Protonix a medication used to gastro-esophageal reflux disease (a chronic condition where stomach acid frequently flows back into the esophagus, irritating its lining), 50mg metoprolol ER (an extended release medication used to treat high blood pressure), and tamsulosin (a medication used to treat an enlarged prostate). There was no documented evidence in the resident's clinical record that "do not crush" was added to the above orders.

Interview with Licensed Practical Nurse 2on July 30, 2026, at 8:43 a.m. revealed that all medication for Resident 5 is to be crushed, and that they are crushed because there is not a "do not crush" order in place.

A pharmacy medication regimen review for Resident 5, dated March 27, 2026, revealed that the resident needed to have an Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) (a 12-item, clinician-rated medical exam used to detect and measure the severity of involuntary muscle movements related to long-term anti-psychotic use) completed. There was no documented evidence that an AIMS was completed until April 27, 2026.

An interview with the Director of Nursing on July 30, 2026, at 8:43 a.m. confirmed that the recommendation was not appropriately addressed for the above residents.

28 Pa. Code 211.10(c) Resident care policies.

28 Pa. Code 211.12 (d)(1)(3)(5) Nursing services.








 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0756 – Drug Regimen Review
1. R4 was discharged from the facility.

2. Director of Nursing/designee will audit completion of pharmacy recommendations monthly for 3 months.

3. R5 January pharmacy recommendations were addressed by physician.

Director of Nursing/designee will educate Registered Nurse Supervisors and physician staff on F0756 (Drug Regimen Review) to ensure pharmacy recommendations are acknowledged and addressed.

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.45(g)(h)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Label/Store Drugs and Biologicals:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.45(g) Labeling of Drugs and Biologicals
Drugs and biologicals used in the facility must be labeled in accordance with currently accepted professional principles, and include the appropriate accessory and cautionary instructions, and the expiration date when applicable.

§483.45(h) Storage of Drugs and Biologicals

§483.45(h)(1) In accordance with State and Federal laws, the facility must store all drugs and biologicals in locked compartments under proper temperature controls, and permit only authorized personnel to have access to the keys.

§483.45(h)(2) The facility must provide separately locked, permanently affixed compartments for storage of controlled drugs listed in Schedule II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1976 and other drugs subject to abuse, except when the facility uses single unit package drug distribution systems in which the quantity stored is minimal and a missing dose can be readily detected.
Observations:


Based on review of facility policies, as well as observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to properly label and date eye drops in one of four medication carts reviewed ( Elizabeth courtyard)and failed to store and maintain medications in two of four medication carts reviewed (Claire courtyard and Elizabeth courtyard).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding medication storage and labeling dated May 29, 2026, revealed that the facility would ensure that multi-dose medications that have been opened or accessed are to be labeled with the date they opened considering the manufacturers' specifications and all medications and biologicals are stored properly, following manufacturers or provider pharmacy recommendations, to maintain their integrity and to support safe effective drug administration.

Observations in the Claire courtyard medication cart on July 28, 2026, at 11:49 am. revealed that there were 12 loose pills throughout the bottom of the first medication drawer. The pills were as follows; one blue/green capsule, one orange small round tablet, one yellow oblong tablet, two large white round tablets, one small round white tablet, one medium round tan tablet, two small round off white tablets, one tiny white oblong tablet, two half oblong white tablets.

Interview with Licensed Practical Nurse 3 on July 28, 2026, at 11:58 a.m. confirmed that the medication cart should not have 12 loose pills in the medication drawer.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 29, 2026, at 3:33 p.m. confirmed that the Claire courtyard medication cart should not have 12 loose pills in the bottom of the drawer. He indicated that the medication cart was on record as being cleaned the previous weekend.

Observations in the Elizabeth courtyard medication cart on July 29, 2026, at 10:10 am. revealed that there was one bottle of Latanoprost Ophthalmic Solution .005 percent eye drops (used to lower the pressure in the eye) that was opened and not labeled with the date it was opened and 8 loose pills throughout the bottom of the first and second medication drawer. The pills were as follows; one orange small round tablet, one large white round tablet, one large round tan tablet, four small round white tablets, one oblong blue tablet.

Interview with Licensed Practical Nurse 4 on July 29, 2026, at 10:12 a.m. confirmed that the bottle of Latanoprost Ophthalmic Solution .005 percent eye drops should have been labeled with the date it was opened and the medication cart should not have 8 loose pills in the bottom of the drawers.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 29, 2026, at 11:30 a.m. confirmed that the bottle of eye drops should have been labeled with the date it was opened and there should not be 8 loose pills in the bottom of the drawers in the Elizabeth courtyard medication cart.

28 Pa. Code 211.9(a)(1) Pharmacy services.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0761 – Label/Store Drugs and Biologicals
1. Pills obtained from medication cart drawers were discarded.

Opened and undated Latanoprost Ophthalmic Solution was discarded, and a new bottle was obtained.

2. A Pharmacy representative will conduct a medication cart audit.

3. Director of Nursing/designee will educate licensed nursing staff on F0761 to ensure that medications are stored and dated properly.

Director of Nursing/designee will audit medication carts twice weekly for 4 weeks to ensure proper storage and dating of medication.

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.20(f)(5),483.70(h)(1)-(5) REQUIREMENT Resident Records - Identifiable Information:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.20(f)(5) Resident-identifiable information.
(i) A facility may not release information that is resident-identifiable to the public.
(ii) The facility may release information that is resident-identifiable to an agent only in accordance with a contract under which the agent agrees not to use or disclose the information except to the extent the facility itself is permitted to do so.

§483.70(h) Medical records.
§483.70(h)(1) In accordance with accepted professional standards and practices, the facility must maintain medical records on each resident that are-
(i) Complete;
(ii) Accurately documented;
(iii) Readily accessible; and
(iv) Systematically organized

§483.70(h)(2) The facility must keep confidential all information contained in the resident's records,
regardless of the form or storage method of the records, except when release is-
(i) To the individual, or their resident representative where permitted by applicable law;
(ii) Required by Law;
(iii) For treatment, payment, or health care operations, as permitted by and in compliance with 45 CFR 164.506;
(iv) For public health activities, reporting of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence, health oversight activities, judicial and administrative proceedings, law enforcement purposes, organ donation purposes, research purposes, or to coroners, medical examiners, funeral directors, and to avert a serious threat to health or safety as permitted by and in compliance with 45 CFR 164.512.

§483.70(h)(3) The facility must safeguard medical record information against loss, destruction, or unauthorized use.

§483.70(h)(4) Medical records must be retained for-
(i) The period of time required by State law; or
(ii) Five years from the date of discharge when there is no requirement in State law; or
(iii) For a minor, 3 years after a resident reaches legal age under State law.

§483.70(h)(5) The medical record must contain-
(i) Sufficient information to identify the resident;
(ii) A record of the resident's assessments;
(iii) The comprehensive plan of care and services provided;
(iv) The results of any preadmission screening and resident review evaluations and determinations conducted by the State;
(v) Physician's, nurse's, and other licensed professional's progress notes; and
(vi) Laboratory, radiology and other diagnostic services reports as required under §483.50.
Observations:


Based on review of facility policy and clinical records, as well as resident and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to maintain clinical records that were complete and accurately documented for one of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 19).

Findings include:

Facility policy for documentation in the medical record dated May 29, 2026, indicated that each residents' medical record shall contain an accurate representation of the actual experiences of the resident and include enough information to provide a picture of the resident's progress through complete, accurate, and timely documentation. Licensed staff and interdisciplinary team members shall document all assessments, observations, and services provided in the resident's medical record in accordance with the state law and facility policy. Documentation shall be factual, objective and resident centered. False information shall not be documented.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 19, dated May 8, 2026, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for daily care needs, had no behaviors, and had diagnoses that included left sided hemiplegia (complete or partial loss of function on one side of the body) following a stroke.
Physician's orders for Resident 19 dated July 17, 2026, indicated that the resident was to get out of bed every other day for two hours per day.

Review of the Treatment Administration Record (TAR) for Resident 19 dated July 2026 revealed that the resident was out of bed for two hours on July 17, 19, 21, 23, 25, and 27.

Review of nurse aide documentation for Resident 19 dated July 2026 revealed that on July 17, 18, 19, 23, 24, and 28, his chair/bed-to-chair transfer ability was documented as "not applicable". On July 20, 21, 22, 25, 26, and 27, his chair/bed-to-chair transfer ability was documented as "resident refused".

An interview with Resident 19 on July 29, 2026, at 1:52 p.m. revealed that staff do not offer to get him out of bed, and he does not believe he has been out of bed in over a month.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 30, 2026, at 3:15 p.m. confirmed that Resident 19 has not been getting out of bed because he refuses, and that the documentation in Resident 19's TAR indicating that he was out of bed on the above-mentioned dates were inaccurate.

28 Pa Code 211.5(f) Clinical records


28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(5) Nursing services





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0842 – Resident Records – Identifiable Information
1. R19 order for out of bed was removed from the nursing Treatment Administration Record to eliminate potential discrepancies in documentation.

Director of Nursing/designee will re-evaluate R19 preferences.

2. Director of Nursing/designee will audit resident charts for residents with specific out of bed orders.

3. Director of Nursing/designee will educate clinical staff on documentation of resident preferences and refusals.

Director of Nursing/designee will audit 10 resident charts per week for 4 weeks to ensure out of bed schedules are maintained and refusals are documented and addressed.

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.75(c)(1)-(4)d)(1)(2)(e)(1)-(3)(g)(2)(ii)(iii) REQUIREMENT QAPI/QAA Improvement Activities:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.75(c) Program feedback, data systems and monitoring.
A facility must establish and implement written policies and procedures for feedback, data collections systems, and monitoring, including adverse event monitoring. The policies and procedures must include, at a minimum, the following:

§483.75(c)(1) Facility maintenance of effective systems to obtain and use of feedback and input from direct care staff, other staff, residents, and resident representatives, including how such information will be used to identify problems that are high risk, high volume, or problem-prone, and opportunities for improvement.

§483.75(c)(2) Facility maintenance of effective systems to identify, collect, and use data and information from all departments, including but not limited to the facility assessment required at §483.71 and including how such information will be used to develop and monitor performance indicators.

§483.75(c)(3) Facility development, monitoring, and evaluation of performance indicators, including the methodology and frequency for such development, monitoring, and evaluation.

§483.75(c)(4) Facility adverse event monitoring, including the methods by which the facility will systematically identify, report, track, investigate, analyze and use data and information relating to adverse events in the facility, including how the facility will use the data to develop activities to prevent adverse events.

§483.75(d) Program systematic analysis and systemic action.

§483.75(d)(1) The facility must take actions aimed at performance improvement and, after implementing those actions, measure its success, and track performance to ensure that improvements are realized and sustained.

§483.75(d)(2) The facility will develop and implement policies addressing:
(i) How they will use a systematic approach to determine underlying causes of problems impacting larger systems;
(ii) How they will develop corrective actions that will be designed to effect change at the systems level to prevent quality of care, quality of life, or safety problems; and
(iii) How the facility will monitor the effectiveness of its performance improvement activities to ensure that improvements are sustained.

§483.75(e) Program activities.

§483.75(e)(1) The facility must set priorities for its performance improvement activities that focus on high-risk, high-volume, or problem-prone areas; consider the incidence, prevalence, and severity of problems in those areas; and affect health outcomes, resident safety, resident autonomy, resident choice, and quality of care.

§483.75(e)(2) Performance improvement activities must track medical errors and adverse resident events, analyze their causes, and implement preventive actions and mechanisms that include feedback and learning throughout the facility.

§483.75(e)(3) As part of their performance improvement activities, the facility must conduct distinct performance improvement projects. The number and frequency of improvement projects conducted by the facility must reflect the scope and complexity of the facility's services and available resources, as reflected in the facility assessment required at §483.71. Improvement projects must include at least annually a project that focuses on high risk or problem-prone areas identified through the data collection and analysis described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.

§483.75(g) Quality assessment and assurance.

§483.75(g)(2) The quality assessment and assurance committee reports to the facility's governing body, or designated person(s) functioning as a governing body regarding its activities, including implementation of the QAPI program required under paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. The committee must:

(ii) Develop and implement appropriate plans of action to correct identified quality deficiencies;
(iii) Regularly review and analyze data, including data collected under the QAPI program and data resulting from drug regimen reviews, and act on available data to make improvements.
Observations:


Based on review of the facility's plans of correction for previous surveys, and the results of the current survey, it was determined that the facility's Quality Assurance Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee failed to correct quality deficiencies and ensure that plans to improve the delivery of care and services effectively addressed recurring deficiencies.

Findings include:

The facility's deficiencies and plans of corrections for a State Survey and Certification (Department of Health) survey ending June 26, 2026, revealed that the facility developed plans of correction that included quality assurance systems to ensure that the facility-maintained compliance with cited nursing home regulations. The results of the current survey, ending July 30, 2026, identified repeated deficiencies related to a failure to assure medications were stored/labeled in a proper manner, failed to provide food that was palatable and at appropriate temperatures, failed to date food items as required and failed to wear hair coverings in the kitchen as per policy.

The facility's plan of corrections for deficiencies regardingstorage/labeling cited during the survey ending June 26, 2025, revealed that the facility would complete audits and report the results of the audits to the QAPI committee for review. The results of the current survey, cited under F761, revealed that the facility's QAPI committee failed to successfully implement their plan to ensure ongoing compliance with the labeling/storage of medications.

The facility's plan of corrections for deficiencies regarding providing palatable food at appropriate temperatures, cited during the survey ending June 26, 2025, revealed that the facility would complete audits and report the results of the audits to the QAPI committee for review. The results of the current survey, cited under F804, revealed that the facility's QAPI committee failed to successfully implement their plan to ensure that food was palatable and at appropriate temperatures.

The facility's plan of corrections for deficiencies regarding the wearing of appropriate hair coverings in the kitchen, cited during the survey ending June 26, 2025, revealed that the facility would complete audits and report the results of the audits to the QAPI committee for review. The results of the current survey, cited under F812, revealed that the facility's QAPI committee failed to successfully implement their plan to ensure the wearing of appropriate hair coverings in the kitchen.

Refer to F761, 804, 812.

28 Pa. Code 201.14(a) Responsibility of licensee.

28 Pa. Code 201.18(e)(1) Management.




























 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0867 - QAPI/QAA Improvement Activities
1. The previous Plans of Correction for 2025 will be reviewed for F0804, F0812, and F076 by the Administrator, Culinary Director, and Director of Nursing since none of these employees worked at this facility during the 2025 annual survey and implementation of the plan of correction.
2. A Root Cause Analysis will be conducted on the causes of the repeated deficiencies by the Administrator, Culinary Director and Director of Nursing.
3. The dietary staff will be educated by the Culinary Director/designee on F0804 and F0812 and the findings of the Root Cause Analysis.
Eight Residents per week will be interviewed by the Culinary Director/designee for feedback on the palatability of the food for 4 weeks.
Temperatures for 5 test trays will be taken per week by the Culinary Director/designee for 4 weeks.
Refrigerators in the kitchen will be audited by the Cook/designee 5 times per week for 2 weeks then 3 times a week for 2 weeks.
Refrigerators on the 8 nursing units will be audited by the Culinary Director/designee 3 times per week for 4 weeks.
The professional nurses will be educated by the Director of Nursing/designee on F0761 and the findings of the Root Cause Analysis.
A Pharmacy representative will conduct a medication cart audit and make recommendations for improving the process.
Director of Nursing/designee will audit medication carts twice weekly for 4 weeks to ensure proper storage and dating of medication.
Director of Nursing/designee will audit medication carts twice weekly for 4 weeks to ensure proper storage and dating of medication.
4.The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.



483.80(d)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Influenza and Pneumococcal Immunizations:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.80(d) Influenza and pneumococcal immunizations
§483.80(d)(1) Influenza. The facility must develop policies and procedures to ensure that-
(i) Before offering the influenza immunization, each resident or the resident's representative receives education regarding the benefits and potential side effects of the immunization;
(ii) Each resident is offered an influenza immunization October 1 through March 31 annually, unless the immunization is medically contraindicated or the resident has already been immunized during this time period;
(iii) The resident or the resident's representative has the opportunity to refuse immunization; and
(iv)The resident's medical record includes documentation that indicates, at a minimum, the following:
(A) That the resident or resident's representative was provided education regarding the benefits and potential side effects of influenza immunization; and
(B) That the resident either received the influenza immunization or did not receive the influenza immunization due to medical contraindications or refusal.

§483.80(d)(2) Pneumococcal disease. The facility must develop policies and procedures to ensure that-
(i) Before offering the pneumococcal immunization, each resident or the resident's representative receives education regarding the benefits and potential side effects of the immunization;
(ii) Each resident is offered a pneumococcal immunization, unless the immunization is medically contraindicated or the resident has already been immunized;
(iii) The resident or the resident's representative has the opportunity to refuse immunization; and
(iv)The resident's medical record includes documentation that indicates, at a minimum, the following:
(A) That the resident or resident's representative was provided education regarding the benefits and potential side effects of pneumococcal immunization; and
(B) That the resident either received the pneumococcal immunization or did not receive the pneumococcal immunization due to medical contraindication or refusal.
Observations:

Based on review of residents' clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that each resident received pneumococcal immunizations for one of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 83) and failed to ensure each resident received the influenza vaccine for one of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 6).

Findings include:

The facility's pneumococcal vaccine policy, dated May 29, 2026, indicated that all residents will receive immunizations and/or vaccinations that aid in preventing infectious disease unless medically contraindicated or the resident refuses.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessments (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 83, dated June 18, 2026, revealed the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for daily care needs, and his pneumococcal vaccination was not up to date, and it was not offered.

Pneumococcal Pneumonia Immunization Consent Form for Resident 83 dated March 20, 2026, revealed education was provided to the resident and authorization to administer the pneumococcal vaccine was obtained. Review of clinical records revealed no documented evidence that the pneumococcal vaccine was administered or contraindicated.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 29, 2026, at 12:15 p.m. confirmed that Resident 83's signed consent for the pneumococcal vaccine on March 20, 2026, however, as of July 29, 2026, there was no documented evidence that it was administered.

An annual MDS assessments for Resident 6, dated February 13, 2026, revealed that resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for daily care needs, and that the resident did not receive the influenza vaccine in the facility for that year's influenza vaccination season because it was offered and refused. There was no documented evidence available that the resident was offered the influenza vaccine during the 2025-2026 flu season and/or she refused it.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 230, 2026, at 3:15 p.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence that Resident 6 was offered the influenza vaccine and refused it.

28 Pa. Code 201.14(a) Responsibility of Licensee.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(1)(5) Nursing Services.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0883 – Influenza and Pneumococcal Immunizations
1. R6 will be offered the influenza vaccine.

R83 had the Pneumococcal vaccine administered.

2. Infection Preventionist/designee will obtain updated consents on residents in the facility.

3. Director of Nursing/designee will educate Infection Preventionist and Registered Nurse Supervisors on the process of obtaining consents, documenting refusals and vaccine administration.

Infection Preventionist/designee will audit new admissions weekly for 4 weeks to ensure consents are obtained, residents are scheduled for desired immunizations and refusals are documented.

4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

483.95(g)(1)-(4) REQUIREMENT Required In-Service Training for Nurse Aides:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.95(g) Required in-service training for nurse aides.
In-service training must-

§483.95(g)(1) Be sufficient to ensure the continuing competence of nurse aides, but must be no less than 12 hours per year.

§483.95(g)(2) Include dementia management training and resident abuse prevention training.

§483.95(g)(3) Address areas of weakness as determined in nurse aides' performance reviews and facility assessment at § 483.71 and may address the special needs of residents as determined by the facility staff.

§483.95(g)(4) For nurse aides providing services to individuals with cognitive impairments, also address the care of the cognitively impaired.
Observations:

Based on a review facility policies, employee education records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that nurse aides completed the required annual education for three of three nurse aides reviewed (Nurse Aides 10, 11, 12).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding continuing education, dated May 29, 2026, indicated that compliance with the facility's standards, policies, and procedures is a condition of employment. This includes compliance with the policies and procedures of this facility's training programs.

Review of the employee education file for Nurse Aide 10revealed that there was no documented evidence of twelve hours of required education completed between 2025-2026.

Review of the employee education file for Nurse Aide 11revealed that there was no documented evidence of twelve hours of required education completed between 2025-2026.

Review of the employee education file for Nurse Aide 12 revealed that there was no documented evidence of twelve hours of required education completed between 2025-2026.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 29, 2026, at 10:34 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence that Nurse Aides 10, 11, and 12 completed the 12 hours of annual training as required.

28 Pa. Code 201.18 (b)(3)(e)(1) Management.




.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

F0947 – Required In-Service Training for Nurse Aides
1. Nurse Aide 10, Nurse Aide 11, and Nurse Aide 12 had the remaining number of hours needed to meet the 12-hour requirement scheduled by the Director of Human Resources.
2. An audit will be conducted of all Nurse Aides to determine the number of hours needed for all to meet the 12-hour annual requirement.
3. The Administrator/designee will educate the Director of Nurses, Assistant Director of Nurses, and the Human Resources Director on the requirements of F0947.
The Human Resources Director/designee will schedule needed hours of training for each Nurse Aide.
Weekly audits will be completed by the Human Resources Director of the number of hours that have been completed for each of the Nurse Aides.
The Nurse Aides will be notified by the Director of Nursing/designee that anyone not completing the required training by the date of compliance will be taken off the schedule until the training is completed.
4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.

§ 201.14(c) LICENSURE Responsibility of licensee.:State only Deficiency.
(c) The licensee through the administrator shall report as soon as possible, or, at the latest, within 24 hours to the appropriate Division of Nursing Care Facilities field office serious incidents involving residents as set forth in § 51.3 (relating to notification). For purposes of this subpart, references to patients in § 51.3 include references to residents.

Observations:

Based on a review of clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to notify the Department of Health of an incident that had the potential for serious harm to a resident for one of 38 residents reviewed (Resident 90).

Findings include:

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessments (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 90, dated May 20, 2026, revealed the resident was cognitively impaired, required supervision or touching assist for eating, and had diagnoses that included dementia.

Nurse's note for Resident 90 dated June 26, 2026, at 1:40 p.m. revealed that the resident was eating breakfast in the dining room at 8:50 a.m. and began coughing while eating sausage links that were cut up. Coughing worsened and the resident appeared to be choking; the Heimlich maneuver was completed twice with three thrusts each. The resident expelled copious amounts of mucous with food particles.

There was no documented evidence to indicate that this choking incident was reported to the Department of Health.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on July 29, 2026, at 9:47 a.m. revealed that the choking incident that occurred with Resident 90 was not reported to the Department of Health because he believed it did not require reporting because the resident did not require transfer to the hospital and there was no injury or harm to the resident.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 09/15/2026

P1040 – Responsibility of Licensee
1. The event report for R90 will be submitted.

2. Director of Nursing/designee will audit incident/accident reports from April 1, 2026, to ensure any like events will be reported.

3. Administrator/designee will educate Director of Nursing, Assistant Director of Nursing and Registered Nurse Supervisors on notification of PA Department of Health via the Event Reporting System.

Director of Nursing/designee will audit 24-hour report and incident/accidents 5 times per week for 4 weeks for reportable events.
4. The results of the audits will be reviewed in the monthly Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings for 3 months.



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