Pennsylvania Department of Health
OAK HILL HEALTHCARE AND REHABILITATION CENTER
Patient Care Inspection Results

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OAK HILL HEALTHCARE AND REHABILITATION CENTER
Inspection Results For:

There are  127 surveys for this facility. Please select a date to view the survey results.

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OAK HILL HEALTHCARE AND REHABILITATION CENTER - Inspection Results Scope of Citation
Number of Residents Affected
By Deficient Practice
Initial comments:

Based on a Medicare/Medicaid Recertification survey, State Licensure survey, and Civil Rights Compliance survey completed on June 13, 2024, it was determined that Oak Hill Healthcare and Rehabilitation Center was not in compliance with the following requirements of 42 CFR Part 483, Subpart B, Requirements for Long Term Care Facilities and the 28 PA Code, Commonwealth of Pennsylvania Long Term Care Licensure Regulations.




 Plan of Correction:


483.60(i)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Food Procurement,Store/Prepare/Serve-Sanitary:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency but was found to be widespread throughout the facility and/or has the potential to affect a large portion or all the residents.  This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.60(i) Food safety requirements.
The facility must -

§483.60(i)(1) - Procure food from sources approved or considered satisfactory by federal, state or local authorities.
(i) This may include food items obtained directly from local producers, subject to applicable State and local laws or regulations.
(ii) This provision does not prohibit or prevent facilities from using produce grown in facility gardens, subject to compliance with applicable safe growing and food-handling practices.
(iii) This provision does not preclude residents from consuming foods not procured by the facility.

§483.60(i)(2) - Store, prepare, distribute and serve food in accordance with professional standards for food service safety.
Observations:


Based on review of policies, observations, and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that food was served under sanitary conditions, in accordance with professional standards for food service safety.

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding sanitization, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that the food service area is maintained in a clean sanitary manner. All kitchen areas are kept clean and free from debris. All utensils, counters, shelves and equipment are kept clean and maintained.

Observations in the main kitchen on June 13, 2024, at 9:23 a.m. revealed that there was a black, removable substance on the wall near the dishwasher; kitchen shelves, where clean pots and serving pans were kept, had dust and debris on them; and the dish warmer tray had a thick, removable substance on it.

Interview with the Dietary Manager on June 13, 2024, at 9:23 a.m. confirmed that the kitchen, the shelving, and kitchen equipment should be clean and free of debris and was not.

28 Pa. Code 211.6(f) Dietary Services.



 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

The wall near the dishwasher, the kitchen shelves where the clean pots and pans are kept and the dish warmer tray were all cleaned immediately.
The kitchen was inspected by the administrator and all identified areas were cleaned immediately.
Dietary staff were inserviced to include but not limited to the policy and procedure for sanitization as well as the dietary cleaning checklists.
The Administrator and/or designee will complete kitchen rounds daily Monday through Friday for two weeks, bi-weekly for two weeks and weekly thereafter for a period of one month to ensure compliance. The results will be taken to the Quality Assurance and Process Improvement committee for review and further recommendations.


483.10(i)(1)-(7) REQUIREMENT Safe/Clean/Comfortable/Homelike Environment:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and affects more than a limited number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status. This deficiency was not found to be throughout this facility.
§483.10(i) Safe Environment.
The resident has a right to a safe, clean, comfortable and homelike environment, including but not limited to receiving treatment and supports for daily living safely.

The facility must provide-
§483.10(i)(1) A safe, clean, comfortable, and homelike environment, allowing the resident to use his or her personal belongings to the extent possible.
(i) This includes ensuring that the resident can receive care and services safely and that the physical layout of the facility maximizes resident independence and does not pose a safety risk.
(ii) The facility shall exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft.

§483.10(i)(2) Housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a sanitary, orderly, and comfortable interior;

§483.10(i)(3) Clean bed and bath linens that are in good condition;

§483.10(i)(4) Private closet space in each resident room, as specified in §483.90 (e)(2)(iv);

§483.10(i)(5) Adequate and comfortable lighting levels in all areas;

§483.10(i)(6) Comfortable and safe temperature levels. Facilities initially certified after October 1, 1990 must maintain a temperature range of 71 to 81°F; and

§483.10(i)(7) For the maintenance of comfortable sound levels.
Observations:


Based on observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to provide a clean and homelike environment for four of 28 residents reviewed (Residents 4, 8, 9, 29).

Findings include:

Observations of Resident 4's wheelchair on June 10, at 11:42 a.m.; June 11, 2024, at 12:18 p.m.; and June 12, 2024, at 9:00 a.m. revealed that the resident was resting his hand/arm on an oversized right armrest that had a moderate accumulation of removable, dried-on debris.

Observations of Resident 8's wheelchair on June 10, 2024, at 11:47 a.m.; June 11, 2024, at 2:16 p.m.; and June 12, 2024, at 11:12 a.m. revealed that the resident's cushioned wheelchair had a moderate to large amount of thick, removable dust/debris on the metal supports under the seat and an accumulation of dirt and sticky debris that caused the seat cushion to stick to the wheelchair seat.

Observations of Resident 9's wheelchair on June 10, 2024, at 11:38 a.m.; June 11, 2024, at 1:20 p.m.; and June 12, 2024, at 1:32 p.m. revealed that there was a large amount of removable dust/debris on the wheels and the metal supports under the chair.

Observations of Resident 29's wheelchair on June 10, 2024, at 11:55 a.m. and June 11, 2024, at 2:30 p.m. revealed that the front wheels of the wheelchair had an accumulation of removable, white, dried-on debris.

Interview with the Housekeeping Supervisor on June 13, 2024, at 12:50 p.m. confirmed that Resident's 4, 8, 9 and 29's wheelchairs should have been clean. He revealed that it was his impression that the nurse aides cleaned the residents' wheelchairs.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 1:31 p.m. confirmed that the removable dust, dirt and debris on Resident 4's, 8's, 9's and 29's wheelchairs should not have been there, and they should have been cleaned.

28 Pa. Code 201.29(j) Resident Rights.

28 Pa. Code 207.2(a) Administrator's Responsibility.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Wheelchairs for Residents 4, 8, 9 and 29 were cleaned immediately.
All resident wheelchairs were cleaned thoroughly. A wheelchair cleaning schedule has been developed to ensure chairs are routinely cleaned.
The Director of Nursing and/or designee will inservice the staff including new hires and agency staff to include but not limited to the wheelchair cleaning schedule, wheelchair spot cleaning found during routine care as well as providing a clean and homelike environment.
The Director of Nursing and/or designee will monitor daily for 2 weeks, bi-weekly for two weeks and monthly thereafter. The results will be taken to Quality Assurance and Process Improvement Committee for review and further recommendations.


483.45(a)(b)(1)-(3) REQUIREMENT Pharmacy Srvcs/Procedures/Pharmacist/Records:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and affects more than a limited number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status. This deficiency was not found to be throughout this facility.
§483.45 Pharmacy Services
The facility must provide routine and emergency drugs and biologicals to its residents, or obtain them under an agreement described in §483.70(g). The facility may permit unlicensed personnel to administer drugs if State law permits, but only under the general supervision of a licensed nurse.

§483.45(a) Procedures. A facility must provide pharmaceutical services (including procedures that assure the accurate acquiring, receiving, dispensing, and administering of all drugs and biologicals) to meet the needs of each resident.

§483.45(b) Service Consultation. The facility must employ or obtain the services of a licensed pharmacist who-

§483.45(b)(1) Provides consultation on all aspects of the provision of pharmacy services in the facility.

§483.45(b)(2) Establishes a system of records of receipt and disposition of all controlled drugs in sufficient detail to enable an accurate reconciliation; and

§483.45(b)(3) Determines that drug records are in order and that an account of all controlled drugs is maintained and periodically reconciled.
Observations:


Based on a review of facility policies and clinical record reviews, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure the accountability of controlled medications (drugs with the potential to be abused) for three of 28 residents reviewed (Residents 2, 11, 20).

Findings include:

A facility policy regarding administration of pain medication, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that facility staff were to administer pain medication as ordered and to document in the resident's medical record the results of the pain assessment, medication, dose, route of administration, and the result of the medication.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 2, dated May 6, 2024, revealed that the resident was understood and could understand others and was receiving palliative care.

Physician's orders for Resident 2, dated January 17, 2024, included an order for the resident to receive 30 milligrams (mg) of MS Contin (Morphine Sulfate - a controlled narcotic) by mouth three times a day related to palliative care.

Review of the June 2024 controlled drug record (a log for tracking the inventory of controlled drugs) for Resident 2 revealed that staff signed out a dose of MS Contin for administration to the resident on June 6, 2024, at 5:00 a.m. However, a review of the Medication Administration Record (MAR) and nursing notes for Resident 2 for June 2024 revealed no documented evidence that the signed out dose of MS Contin was administered to the resident.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 12, 2024, at 2:36 p.m. confirmed that the dose of MS Contin for Resident 2 should have been documented as administered on the MAR if it was signed out on the controlled drug record.

A significant change MDS assessment for Resident 11, dated May 23, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, required assistance from staff for his daily care needs, was receiving hospice services, and received opioid (controlled drug used to treat pain) medication.

Physician's orders for Resident 11, dated February 27, 2024, included an order for the resident to receive 5 milligrams (mg) of oxycodone every six hours as needed for pain.

Review of the controlled drug record for Resident 11 revealed that staff signed out a dose of oxycodone for administration to the resident on March 10, 2024, at 8:20 a.m.; March 12, 2024, at 10:30 p.m.; April 3, 2024, at 9:25 p.m.; and April 21, 2024, at 9:00 a.m. However, a review of Resident 11's nursing notes and MARs for March 2024 and April 2024 revealed no documented evidence that the signed-out doses of oxycodone were administered to the resident on those dates and times.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 20, dated May 7, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for his daily care needs, had almost constant pain, and received opioid medication. A care plan for Resident 20 regarding chronic pain, dated February 7, 2024, included an intervention to administer pain medication per physician orders.

Physician's orders for Resident 20, dated February 7, 2024, included an order for the resident to receive 5 mg of oxycodone every four hours as needed for pain.

Review of the controlled drug records for Resident 20 from February through May 2024 revealed that staff signed out a dose of oxycodone for administration to the resident on February 11, 2024, at 12:00 p.m.; February 16, 2024, at 11:30 a.m.; February 18, 2024, at 1:00 p.m.; February 20, 2024, at 4:00 a.m.; February 21, 2024, at 10:00 p.m.; February 29, 2024, at 9:00 a.m.; March 5, 2024, at 11:30 a.m.; March 16, 2024, at 9:30 p.m.; April 10, 2024, at 10:00 p.m.; and May 12, 2024, at 7:20 p.m. However, a review of Resident 20's nursing notes and MARs for February 2024 through May 2024 revealed no documented evidence that the signed-out doses of oxycodone were administered to the resident on those dates and times.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 12:24 p.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence in Resident 11's or 20's clinical records to indicate that the signed-out doses of oxycodone were administered to the residents on the above-mentioned dates and times.

28 Pa. Code 211.9(a)(1) Pharmacy Services.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(1)(3)(5) Nursing Services.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Electronic medical records of Residents 2, 11, and 20 are unable to be modified.
Audit of current residents with narcotic orders was completed to ensure that electronic medication record and the controlled narcotic record match for administration of medication.
Educate license staff including new hires and agency staff on documentation/administration of narcotic medication.
Audits of 3 three resident on narcotics will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.35(d)(7) REQUIREMENT Nurse Aide Peform Review-12 hr/yr In-Service:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and affects more than a limited number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status. This deficiency was not found to be throughout this facility.
§483.35(d)(7) Regular in-service education.
The facility must complete a performance review of every nurse aide at least once every 12 months, and must provide regular in-service education based on the outcome of these reviews. In-service training must comply with the requirements of §483.95(g).
Observations:


Based on review of personnel files, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that nurse aide performance evaluations were completed annually based on hire dates for three of five nurse aides reviewed (Nurse Aides 6, 7, 8).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding performance evaluations, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that job performances of each employee shall be reviewed and evaluated at least annually.

A list of nurse aides provided by the facility revealed that Nurse Aide 6 was hired on March 28, 2023, and that she was due for her annual performance evaluation in March 2024. Nurse Aide 7 was hired February 26, 2023, and was due for her annual performance evaluation in February 2024. Nurse Aide 8 was hired April 16, 2023, and was due for her annual performance evaluation in April 2024. There was no documented evidence that the annual performance evaluations were completed as required for Nurse Aides 6, 7, and 8.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 12, 2024, at 2:40 p.m. confirmed that she could not provide evidence that annual performance evaluations were completed as required for Nurse Aides 6, 7, and 8.

28 Pa. Code 201.14(a) Responsibility of Licensee.

28 Pa. Code 201.18(b)(1)(3)(e)(1) Management.

28 Pa. Code 201.20(a)(c) Staff Development.



 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Nurse Aide 6, 7, and 8 annual performance evaluations were completed.
Current nurse aide personal file were reviewed to ensure that annual performance evaluations were completed.
Education to Director of Nursing and Human Resource director was completed on regulation 730 and that nurse aides need to have an annual performance evaluations completed.
Audit of nurse aides evaluations will be completed to ensure that they were done annually.
The Human Resource Manager will notify department managers monthly who is due for annual evaluations and ensure evaluations are completed.
Audits will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.10(c)(6)(8)(g)(12)(i)-(v) REQUIREMENT Request/Refuse/Dscntnue Trmnt;Formlte Adv Dir:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.10(c)(6) The right to request, refuse, and/or discontinue treatment, to participate in or refuse to participate in experimental research, and to formulate an advance directive.

§483.10(c)(8) Nothing in this paragraph should be construed as the right of the resident to receive the provision of medical treatment or medical services deemed medically unnecessary or inappropriate.

§483.10(g)(12) The facility must comply with the requirements specified in 42 CFR part 489, subpart I (Advance Directives).
(i) These requirements include provisions to inform and provide written information to all adult residents concerning the right to accept or refuse medical or surgical treatment and, at the resident's option, formulate an advance directive.
(ii) This includes a written description of the facility's policies to implement advance directives and applicable State law.
(iii) Facilities are permitted to contract with other entities to furnish this information but are still legally responsible for ensuring that the requirements of this section are met.
(iv) If an adult individual is incapacitated at the time of admission and is unable to receive information or articulate whether or not he or she has executed an advance directive, the facility may give advance directive information to the individual's resident representative in accordance with State law.
(v) The facility is not relieved of its obligation to provide this information to the individual once he or she is able to receive such information. Follow-up procedures must be in place to provide the information to the individual directly at the appropriate time.
Observations:


Based on review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to document the opportunity to formulate advance directives and failed to document the resident's decision to accept or decline assistance to formulate advance directives for four of 28 residents reviewed (Residents 6, 26, 34, 41).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding advance directives (instructions regarding the provision of health care and life sustaining measures when the resident is incapacitated), dated June 7, 2024, indicated that upon admission, the resident will be provided with written information concerning the right to refuse or accept medical or surgical treatment and to formulate an advance directive if he or she chooses to do so. Information about whether or not the resident has executed an advance directive shall be displayed prominently in the medical record. If the resident indicated that he or she has not established advance directives, the facility staff will offer assistance in establishing advance directives. The resident will be given the option to accept or decline the assistance, and nursing staff will document in the medical record the offer to assist and the resident's decision to accept or decline assistance.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 6, dated May 30, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, usually understood and understands others, required extensive assistance with care needs, and had diagnoses that include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (a lung disease that causes breathing problems and airflow restriction).

A social history form for Resident 6, dated July 31, 2024, indicated that the resident did not have advance directives and that advance directives were discussed with the resident. However, there was no documented evidence that information was provided to the resident on advance directives and that assistance was offered to formulate advance directives. There was no documented evidence as to the resident's decision to accept or decline assistance to formulate advance directives.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 26, dated May 10, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, usually understood and understands others, required assistance with care needs, and had diagnoses that include cerebral infarction (a condition that occurs when the brain is damaged due to lack of oxygen and nutrients).

A social history form for Resident 26, dated August 17, 2023, indicated that the resident did not have advance directives and that advance directives were discussed with the resident's family. However, there was no documented evidence that information was provided to the resident's family on advance directives and that assistance was offered to formulate advance directives. There was no documented evidence as to the resident's family's decision to accept or decline assistance to formulate advance directives.

An admission MDS assessment for Resident 34, dated May 13, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, usually understood and understands others, required assistance with care needs, and had diagnoses that included hemiplegia (paralysis or weakness to one side of the body due to brain injury), expressive language disorder (affects how thoughts and ideas are communicated), and a history of traumatic brain injury (TBI) (serious medical condition caused by a blow or jolt to the head).

A social history form for Resident 34, dated May 13, 2024, indicated that the resident did not have advance directives and that advance directives were discussed with the resident. However, there was no documented evidence that information was provided to the resident on advance directives and that assistance was offered to formulate advance directives. There was no documented evidence as to the resident's decision to accept or decline assistance to formulate advance directives.

Interview with the Social Service Coordinator on June 12, 2024, at 1:43 p.m. revealed that she did discuss advance directives with Resident 34 on admission but did not document in the medical record that information was provided on advance directives, that assistance was offered to formulate advance directives, or the the resident's decision to formulate or not to formulate an advance directive.

An admission MDS assessment for Resident 41, dated June 10, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, usually understood and understands others, required assistance with care needs, and had diagnoses that include acute respiratory failure (a life-threatening condition that occurs when the lungs cannot provide enough oxygen to the blood).

A social history form for Resident 41, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that the resident did not have advance directives and that advance directives were discussed with the resident. However, there was no documented evidence that information was provided to the resident on advance directives and that assistance was offered to formulate advance directives. There was no documented evidence as to the resident's decision to accept or decline assistance to formulate advance directives.

Interview with the Social Service Coordinator on June 12, 2024, at 1:43 p.m. revealed that she did discuss advance directives with Resident 41 on admission but did not document in the medical record that information was provided on advance directives, that assistance was offered to formulate advance directives, or the resident's decision to formulate or not to formulate an advance directive.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 11:57 a.m. revealed that she felt the facility's process for addressing advance directives met the regulatory requirements and that the social history forms for Residents 6, 26, 34 and 41 addressed advance directives.

28 Pa. Code 201.29(a)(d) Resident Rights.





 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Residents 6, 26, and 34, and were provided information on advanced directives. They were offered assistance if desired with formulating advanced directives. Residents medical records were completed for documentation of the residents receiving information on Advanced directives and residents decision to accept or decline assistance to formulate advance directives. Resident 41 has been discharged from facility.
Current residents medical records were reviewed to ensure that residents were offered assistance with formulating advance directives. Medical records were reviewed for documentation of the residents receiving information on advance directives and residents decision to accept or decline assistance to formulate advance directives.
Education will be provided to Social worker that she will review Advance directives with new admissions. She will complete a social history assessment and will offer assistance if desired to complete advanced directives. She will complete documentation in the medical record if the residents accepts or declines assistance to formulate advance directives.
Social worker or assigned designee will audit new admissions weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement until substantial compliance is achieved.


483.10(g)(17)(18)(i)-(v) REQUIREMENT Medicaid/Medicare Coverage/Liability Notice:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.10(g)(17) The facility must--
(i) Inform each Medicaid-eligible resident, in writing, at the time of admission to the nursing facility and when the resident becomes eligible for Medicaid of-
(A) The items and services that are included in nursing facility services under the State plan and for which the resident may not be charged;
(B) Those other items and services that the facility offers and for which the resident may be charged, and the amount of charges for those services; and
(ii) Inform each Medicaid-eligible resident when changes are made to the items and services specified in §483.10(g)(17)(i)(A) and (B) of this section.

§483.10(g)(18) The facility must inform each resident before, or at the time of admission, and periodically during the resident's stay, of services available in the facility and of charges for those services, including any charges for services not covered under Medicare/ Medicaid or by the facility's per diem rate.
(i) Where changes in coverage are made to items and services covered by Medicare and/or by the Medicaid State plan, the facility must provide notice to residents of the change as soon as is reasonably possible.
(ii) Where changes are made to charges for other items and services that the facility offers, the facility must inform the resident in writing at least 60 days prior to implementation of the change.
(iii) If a resident dies or is hospitalized or is transferred and does not return to the facility, the facility must refund to the resident, resident representative, or estate, as applicable, any deposit or charges already paid, less the facility's per diem rate, for the days the resident actually resided or reserved or retained a bed in the facility, regardless of any minimum stay or discharge notice requirements.
(iv) The facility must refund to the resident or resident representative any and all refunds due the resident within 30 days from the resident's date of discharge from the facility.
(v) The terms of an admission contract by or on behalf of an individual seeking admission to the facility must not conflict with the requirements of these regulations.
Observations:


Based on review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that notices of Medicare non-coverage were issued timely for two of three discharged residents reviewed (Residents 44, 45).

Findings included:

The facility's policy regarding notices of Medicare non-coverage, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that Skilled Nursing Facility Beneficiary Notices will be issued following the Medicare Claims Processing Manual Chapter 30 Section 260 with the purpose to inform beneficiaries on the Medicare covered services ending and how to request an appeal.

A nursing note for Resident 44, dated May 1, 2024, at 11:20 a.m. revealed that she was discharged home. There was no documented evidence that Resident 44 was issued a notice of Medicare non-coverage prior to the end her of Medicare coverage.

A nursing note for Resident 45, dated February 28, 2024, at 7:16 p.m. revealed that she was discharged. There was no documented evidence that Resident 45 was issued a notice of Medicare non-coverage prior to the end her of Medicare coverage.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 11, 2024, at 11:24 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence that the notice of Medicare non-coverage was issued to Resident 44 and Resident 45 prior to the end their of Medicare coverage and it should have been.

28 Pa. Code 201.18(e)(1) Management.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Residents 44 and 45 have both been discharged and are unable to provide them with a notice of non coverage.
Facility will review past 2 weeks of payer changes to ensure residents were provided documentation of notice of non coverage.
Education of Notice of non coverage procedure provided to Social worker, Resident Nurse Assessment Coordinator, Administrator, and Director of Rehab on policy of Notice of Non coverage.
Audit of payor changes will be completed to ensure that residents were provided documentation of notice of non coverage weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.12(b)(1)-(5)(ii)(iii) REQUIREMENT Develop/Implement Abuse/Neglect Policies:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.12(b) The facility must develop and implement written policies and procedures that:

§483.12(b)(1) Prohibit and prevent abuse, neglect, and exploitation of residents and misappropriation of resident property,

§483.12(b)(2) Establish policies and procedures to investigate any such allegations, and

§483.12(b)(3) Include training as required at paragraph §483.95,

§483.12(b)(4) Establish coordination with the QAPI program required under §483.75.

§483.12(b)(5) Ensure reporting of crimes occurring in federally-funded long-term care facilities in accordance with section 1150B of the Act. The policies and procedures must include but are not limited to the following elements.

§483.12(b)(5)(ii) Posting a conspicuous notice of employee rights, as defined at section 1150B(d)(3) of the Act.

§483.12(b)(5)(iii) Prohibiting and preventing retaliation, as defined at section 1150B(d)(1) and (2) of the Act.
Observations:


Based on review of policies and personnel files, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that the status of nursing licenses was checked with the State Board of Nursing for one of two nurses reviewed (Registered Nurse 4) and failed to complete a Nurse Aide Registry verification for one of three nurse aides reviewed (Nurse Aide 5).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding abuse prevention program, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that the facility would conduct employee background checks and would not knowingly employ or otherwise engage any individuals who have had a finding entered into the State Nurse Aide Registry concerning abuse, neglect, exploitation, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of their property; or have a disciplinary action in effect against his or her professional license by a state licensure body as a result finding of abuse, neglect, exploitation, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of resident property.

The personnel file for Registered Nurse 4 revealed a start date of March 12, 2024. However, there was no documented evidence until June 13, 2024, that her license was verified with the state board.

The personnel file for Nurse Aide 5 revealed a start date of March 4, 2024. However, there was no documented evidence that the nurse aide's standing on the Pennsylvania Nurse Aide Registry was verified until March 21, 2024.

Interview with the Human Resources Director on June 13, 2024, at 10:54 a.m. confirmed that Registered Nurse 4's start date was March 12, 2024, and her license was not verified with the State Board of Nursing, but used a quick confirm website. She also confirmed that Nurse Aide 5 had a start date of March 4, 2024, and there was no documented evidence that a registry verification was completed prior to her start date.

28 Pa. Code 201.14(a) Responsibility of Licensee.

28 Pa. Code 201.18(e)(1) Management.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Registered nurse 4 and Nurse Aide 5 license verification were completed after hire date.
Current Registered nurses and Nurses aid licenses were audited and verified that license verification were completed.
Education provided to Human Resources on completing employment background checks and license verification prior to date of hire. The Administrator and/or designee will review all new hire charts to ensure all pre-employment requirements have been met prior to the employees start date.
Audit will be completed on licensed staff and nurse aid hires that license verification is completed prior to date of hire. Audit will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.15(c)(3)-(6)(8) REQUIREMENT Notice Requirements Before Transfer/Discharge:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.15(c)(3) Notice before transfer.
Before a facility transfers or discharges a resident, the facility must-
(i) Notify the resident and the resident's representative(s) of the transfer or discharge and the reasons for the move in writing and in a language and manner they understand. The facility must send a copy of the notice to a representative of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.
(ii) Record the reasons for the transfer or discharge in the resident's medical record in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
(iii) Include in the notice the items described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section.

§483.15(c)(4) Timing of the notice.
(i) Except as specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) and (c)(8) of this section, the notice of transfer or discharge required under this section must be made by the facility at least 30 days before the resident is transferred or discharged.
(ii) Notice must be made as soon as practicable before transfer or discharge when-
(A) The safety of individuals in the facility would be endangered under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(C) of this section;
(B) The health of individuals in the facility would be endangered, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section;
(C) The resident's health improves sufficiently to allow a more immediate transfer or discharge, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section;
(D) An immediate transfer or discharge is required by the resident's urgent medical needs, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section; or
(E) A resident has not resided in the facility for 30 days.

§483.15(c)(5) Contents of the notice. The written notice specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section must include the following:
(i) The reason for transfer or discharge;
(ii) The effective date of transfer or discharge;
(iii) The location to which the resident is transferred or discharged;
(iv) A statement of the resident's appeal rights, including the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the entity which receives such requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form and assistance in completing the form and submitting the appeal hearing request;
(v) The name, address (mailing and email) and telephone number of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman;
(vi) For nursing facility residents with intellectual and developmental disabilities or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with developmental disabilities established under Part C of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-402, codified at 42 U.S.C. 15001 et seq.); and
(vii) For nursing facility residents with a mental disorder or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with a mental disorder established under the Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act.

§483.15(c)(6) Changes to the notice.
If the information in the notice changes prior to effecting the transfer or discharge, the facility must update the recipients of the notice as soon as practicable once the updated information becomes available.

§483.15(c)(8) Notice in advance of facility closure
In the case of facility closure, the individual who is the administrator of the facility must provide written notification prior to the impending closure to the State Survey Agency, the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, residents of the facility, and the resident representatives, as well as the plan for the transfer and adequate relocation of the residents, as required at § 483.70(l).
Observations:


Based on review of policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to notify the resident, the resident's representative, and the state long-term care ombudsman in writing regarding the reason for transfer to the hospital for two of 28 residents reviewed (Residents 6, 26).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding transfer or discharge, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that the facility would provide written notification to inform residents, residents' representatives, and the state long-term care ombudsman of hospitalization.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 6, dated May 30, 2024, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required extensive assistance from staff for daily care needs, and had a diagnosis of chronic congestive heart failure.

Nursing notes for Resident 6, dated February 21, 2024, indicated that the resident was transferred to the hospital on that date. There was no documented evidence that written notification of transfer was provided to the resident, the resident's representative, or the state long-term care ombudsman.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment for Resident 26, dated May 10, 2024, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for daily care needs, and had a diagnosis of chronic congestive heart failure.

Nursing notes for Resident 26, dated March 8, 2024, indicated that the resident was transferred to the hospital on that date. There was no documented evidence that written notification of transfer was provided to the resident, the resident's representative, or the state long-term care ombudsman.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 12:25 p.m. confirmed that a written notification of hospital transfer was not provided to Resident 6 or Resident 26, their representatives, or the state long-term care ombudsman as required.

28 Pa. Code 201.29(j) Resident Rights.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Resident 6 and Resident 26 will be provided written notification of transfers on February 21, 2024 and March 8, 2024. Ombudsman was notified of transfers.
Completed a 2 week look back of transfer to ensure that the resident and resident responsible party was provided written notice of transfer and ombudsman was notified on transfers.
Education provided to licensed staff including new hires and agency staff, business office managers, and social service director, that a transfer notice in writing must be given to resident and resident responsible representatives at the time of discharge. Business office manager or social service director will notify State long term care ombudsman of all transfers monthly. The administrator and/or designee will monitor transfers to ensure all notifications are made.
Audit will be completed on transfers to ensure that the resident and resident responsible representative was provided a written notification of the transfer notice. State long term care ombudsman will be notified of transfer. Audits will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.15(d)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Notice of Bed Hold Policy Before/Upon Trnsfr:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.15(d) Notice of bed-hold policy and return-

§483.15(d)(1) Notice before transfer. Before a nursing facility transfers a resident to a hospital or the resident goes on therapeutic leave, the nursing facility must provide written information to the resident or resident representative that specifies-
(i) The duration of the state bed-hold policy, if any, during which the resident is permitted to return and resume residence in the nursing facility;
(ii) The reserve bed payment policy in the state plan, under § 447.40 of this chapter, if any;
(iii) The nursing facility's policies regarding bed-hold periods, which must be consistent with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, permitting a resident to return; and
(iv) The information specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.

§483.15(d)(2) Bed-hold notice upon transfer. At the time of transfer of a resident for hospitalization or therapeutic leave, a nursing facility must provide to the resident and the resident representative written notice which specifies the duration of the bed-hold policy described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
Observations:


Based on review of policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that a bed-hold notice was provided to the resident's responsible party for two of 28 residents reviewed (Residents 6, 26) who were transferred to the hospital.

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding bed-hold notices, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that the facility would provide notification to inform residents and/or the resident's representative of their rights regarding holding the resident's current bed in the facility when a resident must be hospitalized or temporarily leaves the facility for medical or therapeutic reasons.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 6, dated May 30, 2024, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required extensive assistance from staff for daily care needs, and had a diagnosis of chronic congestive heart failure.

Nursing notes for Resident 6, dated February 21, 2024, indicated that the resident was transferred to the hospital on that date. There was no documented evidence that a bed-hold notice was provided to the resident's responsible party as required.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment for Resident 26, dated May 10, 2024, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for daily care needs, and had a diagnosis of chronic congestive heart failure.

Nursing notes for Resident 26, dated March 8, 2024, indicated that the resident was transferred to the hospital on that date. There was no documented evidence that a bed-hold notice was provided to the resident's responsible party as required.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 12:25 p.m. confirmed that a bed-hold notice was not provided to Resident 6's or Resident 26's responsible party as required.

28 Pa. Code 201.29(j) Resident Rights.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Resident 6 and 26 and residents representative were provided written bed hold notices.
Completed a 2 week look back of recent transfers to ensure that the resident and resident responsible party were provided a written bedhold notice.
Education provided to licensed staff including new hires and agency staff, business office manager, and social service director, that a written bed hold notice must be given to resident and resident responsible representatives at the time of transfer. The Administrator and/or designee will monitor and track discharges to ensure bed hold notices are issued.
Audit will be completed on transfers to ensure that the resident and resident responsible representative was provided a written bed hold notification. Audits will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.21(a)(1)-(3) REQUIREMENT Baseline Care Plan:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.21 Comprehensive Person-Centered Care Planning
§483.21(a) Baseline Care Plans
§483.21(a)(1) The facility must develop and implement a baseline care plan for each resident that includes the instructions needed to provide effective and person-centered care of the resident that meet professional standards of quality care. The baseline care plan must-
(i) Be developed within 48 hours of a resident's admission.
(ii) Include the minimum healthcare information necessary to properly care for a resident including, but not limited to-
(A) Initial goals based on admission orders.
(B) Physician orders.
(C) Dietary orders.
(D) Therapy services.
(E) Social services.
(F) PASARR recommendation, if applicable.

§483.21(a)(2) The facility may develop a comprehensive care plan in place of the baseline care plan if the comprehensive care plan-
(i) Is developed within 48 hours of the resident's admission.
(ii) Meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section (excepting paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section).

§483.21(a)(3) The facility must provide the resident and their representative with a summary of the baseline care plan that includes but is not limited to:
(i) The initial goals of the resident.
(ii) A summary of the resident's medications and dietary instructions.
(iii) Any services and treatments to be administered by the facility and personnel acting on behalf of the facility.
(iv) Any updated information based on the details of the comprehensive care plan, as necessary.
Observations:


Based on review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that a baseline care plan was developed that included resident-specific information necessary to properly care for one of 28 residents reviewed (Resident 242).

Findings include:

The facility's policy for baseline care plans (includes the minimum healthcare information necessary to properly care for a resident), dated June 7, 2024, indicated that a baseline care plan would be developed within 48 hours of the resident's admission. The baseline care plan would be used until the staff conducts the comprehensive assessment and develops an interdisciplinary person-centered care plan.

An admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 242, dated June 7, 2024, revealed that the resident was admitted on June 3, 2024, was understood, was able to understand others, required assistance with care needs, was taking an anticoagulant (a medication used to thin the blood to prevent blood from clotting), and had diagnoses that included atrial fibrillation (irregular heart rhythm), transient ischemic attack (TIA) (a brief blockage of blood flow to the brain that causes stroke-like symptoms) and a history of thrombosis (vascular disease caused by formation of a blood clot inside a blood vessel) and embolism (blockage of an artery caused by a blood clot).

A physician's order for Resident 242, dated June 3, 2024, included an order for the resident to receive 15 milligrams (mg) of rivaroxaban (an anticoagulant) daily.

There was no documented evidence that a baseline care plan was developed to address Resident 242's need for an anticoagulant.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 9:31 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence that a baseline care plan was developed to address Resident 242's need for an anticoagulant.

28 Pa. Code 201.24(e)(4) Admission Policy.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Resident 242 was provided a copy of the baseline careplan that included the resident need for an anticoagulant.
Completed a 2 week lookback for admissions to ensure that residents had a person centered baseline careplan developed within 48hrs of admission and had been given a copy.
Education completed to license staff including new hires and agency staff on Baseline careplan policy and that new admission will be given a copy of the baseline care plan within 48hrs of admission and will be documented in residents electronic record.
Audit will be completed on admissions to ensure that the resident and resident responsible representative was provided a written copy of the baseline careplan. Audits will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved

483.25 REQUIREMENT Quality of Care:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§ 483.25 Quality of care
Quality of care is a fundamental principle that applies to all treatment and care provided to facility residents. Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that residents receive treatment and care in accordance with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' choices.
Observations:


Based on review of clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that physician's orders were followed for one of 28 residents reviewed (Resident 41).

Findings include:

An admission Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 41, dated June 10, 2024, revealed that the resident was understood, understands, and required assistance from staff for daily care needs.

Physician's orders for Resident 41, dated June 5, 2024, included an order to cleanse the right shin with normal saline, pat dry with ABD (a gauze pad used to treat large wounds), and wrap with rolled gauze.

Observations on June 10, 2024, at 11:15 a.m. and June 11, 2024, at 1:15 p.m. revealed that Resident 41 did not have a wrap on her right leg. Resident 41 stated that she did not think the wraps had been discontinued.

Review of Resident 41's Treatment Administration Record (TAR) for June 2024 revealed that the order for the leg wrap was still an active order and that the wrap was signed off as being completed on June 10 and 11, 2024.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 12, 2024, at 2:35 p.m. confirmed that the treatment for Resident 41's right shin was signed off as being completed and it was not completed as ordered by the physician.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(1)(3)(5) Nursing Services.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Resident 41 wound treatment order was clarified with physician.
Residents with wound treatment orders were verified and clarified if needed.
Education to licensed staff including new hires and agency staff on completing wound treatments as per orders.
Audit will be completed on wound treatments to ensure that they are completed as per ordered and that they are documented in Treatment Administration Record. Audits will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.25(b)(1)(i)(ii) REQUIREMENT Treatment/Svcs to Prevent/Heal Pressure Ulcer:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.25(b) Skin Integrity
§483.25(b)(1) Pressure ulcers.
Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that-
(i) A resident receives care, consistent with professional standards of practice, to prevent pressure ulcers and does not develop pressure ulcers unless the individual's clinical condition demonstrates that they were unavoidable; and
(ii) A resident with pressure ulcers receives necessary treatment and services, consistent with professional standards of practice, to promote healing, prevent infection and prevent new ulcers from developing.
Observations:


Based on clinical record reviews, observations, and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that pressure-relieving interventions were in place as care planned for one of 28 residents reviewed (Resident 4) who was at risk for pressure ulcers.

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding mobility and skin integrity, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that any protective device should be provided as established by the physician.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 4, dated May 9, 2024, indicated that the resident was severely cognitively impaired, dependent on staff for care, had limited range of motion of the upper and lower extremities on both sides, and had diagnoses that included cerebral palsy (a disorder of muscle tone and exaggerated reflexes) with right hand and leg contractures.

Physician's orders, dated April 30, 2024, included an order for the resident to have a right palm guard splint (a type of cushioned barrier between the fingers and the palm to prevent injury to the palm from finger contractures) on except during hygiene, and a heel pro (a type of heel off-loading device to aid in the prevention of skin breakdown) while in bed.

Resident 4's care plan, revised on April 29, 2024, included that he had decreased mobility and functional abilities related to cerebral palsy, with contractures as well as intellectual and cognitive disabilities. Interventions included a right hand palm guard and a heel pro, both to prevent injury to the skin.

Observations on June 12, 2024, at 9:52 a.m. revealed that Resident 4 was sitting in his high-back manual wheelchair with his right hand/arm resting on the right arm rest, and he did not have his right palm guard splint in place.

Observations on June 13, 2024, at 8:00 a.m. revealed that the resident was in bed with his right arm on a pillow, the right palm guard splint was not on and the heel pro was on the chair and not elevating his heels off the mattress.

Interview with Nurse Aide 1 on June 13, 2024, at 8:07 a.m. confirmed that Resident 4 was in bed with his right arm on a pillow but he was not wearing his right palm guard splint, and the heel pro was not under his feet per physician order.

Interviews with the Director of Therapy and Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 1:00 p.m. confirmed that Resident 4 was not wearing a right palm guard splint to his right hand, and there was no heel pro under his heels per physician orders, and there should have been.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(5) Nursing Services.



 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Resident 4 orders for right palm guard splint and heel pro were verified and the Occupational therapist evaluation was completed.
Reviewed residents with orders for palm guard splints and heel pros and clarify if needed.
Educated Nurse aid/licensed staff including new hires and agency staff on applying and documenting splint/braces as per ordered. The Director of Nursing and/or designee will ensure that the splint order appears on the Certified Nursing Assistants task list.
Audits will be completed on braces/splints to ensure that orders are clear and being completed as per order. Audits will also validate placement of brace/splint as per order. Audits will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.25(d)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Free of Accident Hazards/Supervision/Devices:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.25(d) Accidents.
The facility must ensure that -
§483.25(d)(1) The resident environment remains as free of accident hazards as is possible; and

§483.25(d)(2)Each resident receives adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent accidents.
Observations:


Based on review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to complete safety assessments for one of 28 residents reviewed (Resident 11) and failed to provide safe transport in a wheelchair for one of 28 residents reviewed (Resident 26).

Findings include:

The facility's policy for bed safety, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that the resident's sleeping environment shall be assessed by the interdisciplinary team considering the resident's safety, medical conditions, comfort and freedom of movement to try to prevent deaths or injuries from the beds and related equipment (including mattress).

A significant change Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 11, dated May 23, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, required assistance from staff for his daily care needs, and had a Stage 4 pressure ulcer (pressure wound with full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle).

Physician's orders for Resident 11, dated February 12, 2024, included an order for the resident to have an air mattress (an inflated mattress for pressure relief) to his bed and to check functioning every shift.

Observations on June 10, 2024, at 11:52 a.m. revealed that Resident 11 was lying in bed and the bed was equipped with an air mattress. There was no documented evidence that the use of an air mattress was assessed for potential safety hazards prior to being placed on the resident's bed.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on June 12, 2024, at 10:00 a.m. confirmed there was no assessment for potential safety hazards prior to the air mattress being placed on the Resident 11's bed and there should have been.

A quarterly MDS assessment for Resident 26, dated May 10, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact and needed moderate assistance for all of his care. The resident's care plan, revised on March 18, 2024, revealed that the resident was at risk for falls and had muscle weakness and impaired mobility. There was no documented evidence that an assessment was completed to determine if the resident was safe to be transported in a wheelchair that was not equipped with leg rests.

Observations on June 13, 2024, at 1:33 p.m. revealed that Resident 26 was being pushed through the hallway in a wheelchair by Nurse Aide 1. The resident had socks on his feet and the resident's feet were less than one inch above the floor. Upon interview with Nurse Aide 1 at that time, she indicated that the resident prefers not to have the footrests on his wheelchair.

An interview with Resident 26 on June 13, 2024, at 1:44 p.m. revealed that the footrests were sitting on a chair beside him and that he preferred not to have them in place on his wheelchair.

An interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 2:10 p.m. confirmed that while being pushed by staff in his wheelchair, Resident 26 should have his feet on the leg rests or have a care plan in place regarding his desire not to use foot rests. In addition, safety education was not provided regarding the dangers associated with not using footrests during transportation, and it should have.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(1)(3)(5) Nursing Services.



 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Resident 11 had an air mattress assessment completed. Facility will complete an assessment on Admission, readmission, quarterly, and prn. Resident 26 wheelchair had leg rest for wheelchair. Resident 26 was educated on importance of using leg rest with wheelchair use careplan was updated to include his refusal of leg rest use.
Residents with air mattress were reviewed to ensure that air mattress assessments were up to date. Residents with wheelchairs that require staff to push them were fit for wheelchair legs.
Education completed to licensed staff/nurse aides/activities including new hires and agency staff, that residents that are in wheelchairs cannot be pushed in the wheelchair unless wheelchair legs are on chair. Licensed staff including new hires and agency staff were educated on air mattress assessment and when they need completed.
Audit to ensure that air mattress assessments are completed on admission, readmission and that resident in wheelchair will not be assisted by staff unless they have wheelchair legs on chair. Audits will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.


483.25(i) REQUIREMENT Respiratory/Tracheostomy Care and Suctioning:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§ 483.25(i) Respiratory care, including tracheostomy care and tracheal suctioning.
The facility must ensure that a resident who needs respiratory care, including tracheostomy care and tracheal suctioning, is provided such care, consistent with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, the residents' goals and preferences, and 483.65 of this subpart.
Observations:


Based on review of policies and clinical records, as well as observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that residents received oxygen as ordered by the physician for one of 28 residents reviewed (Resident 2).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding oxygen therapy, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that oxygen was to be administered in accordance with physician's orders.

A quarterly Minimum data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 2, dated May 6, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact and had diagnoses that included atrial fibrillation (an irregular heart rate causing poor blood flow) and heart failure (a condition in which the heart does not pump blood as well as it should). Resident 2's care plan, dated May 20, 2024, indicated that she had difficulty breathing related to cardiac disease.

Physician's orders for Resident 2, dated August 29, 2023, included an order for the resident to receive continuous oxygen at a flow rate of 3 liters per minute via nasal cannula (tubes that deliver oxygen into the nostrils).

Observations of Resident 2 on June 11, 2024, at 9:10 a.m. and 11:50 a.m. revealed that the resident was in her room receiving oxygen from an oxygen concentrator (electrical machine that concentrates oxygen from the air) that was set at 1.5 liters per minute.

Interview with Registered Nurse 3 on June 11, 2024, at 12:15 p.m. confirmed that Resident 2's oxygen flow rate was set at 1.5 liters per minute and not 3.0 liters per minute as ordered by the physician.

Interview with the Director of Nursing on June 11, 2024, at 12:26 p.m. confirmed that Resident 2's oxygen flow rate should be set at 3 liters per minute continuously as per physician order, and it was not.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(1)(3)(5) Nursing Services.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Resident 2 oxygen flow rate was verified with physician that Oxygen needs to be a 1.5Liter per minute.
Reviewed current residents with oxygen orders and ensured that orders were accurate and residents were receiving correct flow rate per order as well as correct documentation on the Treatment Administration Record.
Education provided to licensed staff including new hires and agency staff on Oxygen administration policy which includes but not limited to following physician orders for setting oxygen at specific liters and documenting oxygen and flow rates on the Treatment Administration Record.
Audit of 3 residents and any new admissions with Oxygen orders will be completed to ensure that correct liter flow is occurring. Audits will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.25(m) REQUIREMENT Trauma Informed Care:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.25(m) Trauma-informed care
The facility must ensure that residents who are trauma survivors receive culturally competent, trauma-informed care in accordance with professional standards of practice and accounting for residents' experiences and preferences in order to eliminate or mitigate triggers that may cause re-traumatization of the resident.
Observations:


Based on clinical record review and staff interview, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that residents were assessed and received trauma-informed care to eliminate or mitigate triggers for residents with the diagnosis of Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) (a mental and behavioral disorder that develops related to a terrifying event) for one of 28 residents reviewed (Resident 2).

Findings include:

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 2, dated May, 2024, indicated that the resident was cognitively intact, required assistance from staff for daily care needs, and had diagnoses that included schizophrenia and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). A review of Resident 2's care plan, revised on May 20, 2024, indicated that the resident had PTSD and anxiety.

There was no documented evidence the facility identified Resident 2's specific triggers that could re-traumatize the resident or implement measures as to how facility staff could prevent or minimize triggers from occurring.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 12:37 p.m. revealed that the facility was not completing trauma-informed care assessments and they should be. In addition, the facility did not assess or identify specific triggers that may re-traumatize residents with past traumas to prevent triggers from occurring for Resident 2.

28 Pa. Code 201.24(e)(4) Admission Policy.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(a)(d)(3)(5) Nursing Services.

28 Pa. Code 211.16(a) Social Services.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

1. Resident 2 had diagnosis of schizophrenia and Post Traumatic Stress Disorder on admission and facility completed a trauma screen assessment. Resident's careplan was updated to include trauma informed care with interventions.
2. Current residents with diagnosis of schizophrenia and Post traumatic stress disorder careplan will be reviewed to ensure that careplan and assessments are up to date and accurate.
3. Education completed to Interdisciplinary team to ensure that trauma careplan is developed on admission for residents with Schizophrenia and Post Traumatic Stress Disorder. Careplan must be person centered to identify trauma triggers and interventions to mitigate triggers. Residents with diagnosis are required to complete trauma screen assessments on admission, readmission, quarterly and as needed.
6. Audit of resident with diagnosis of schizophrenia and post traumatic stress disorder will be completed to ensure that residents have trauma careplans and trauma assessments are completed. Audits will be completed weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.


483.45(g)(h)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Label/Store Drugs and Biologicals:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.45(g) Labeling of Drugs and Biologicals
Drugs and biologicals used in the facility must be labeled in accordance with currently accepted professional principles, and include the appropriate accessory and cautionary instructions, and the expiration date when applicable.

§483.45(h) Storage of Drugs and Biologicals

§483.45(h)(1) In accordance with State and Federal laws, the facility must store all drugs and biologicals in locked compartments under proper temperature controls, and permit only authorized personnel to have access to the keys.

§483.45(h)(2) The facility must provide separately locked, permanently affixed compartments for storage of controlled drugs listed in Schedule II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1976 and other drugs subject to abuse, except when the facility uses single unit package drug distribution systems in which the quantity stored is minimal and a missing dose can be readily detected.
Observations:


Based on a review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to label multi-dose containers of medications with the date they were opened in one of one medication carts observed (Colonial Wing).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding medication labeling and storage, dated June 7, 2024, revealed that multi-dose medications that have been opened or accessed are to be dated and discarded within 28 days unless the manufacturer specifies a shorter or longer date for the open medication.

Observations of the Colonial Wing medication cart on June 10, 2024, at 12:24 p.m. revealed one opened and undated vial of Levemir insulin, one opened and undated vial of glargine insulin, and one opened and undated bottle of .005 percent Latanoprost solution eye drops.

Interview with Registered Nurse 3 on June 10, 2024, at 12:30 p.m. confirmed that the insulin vials and bottle of eye drops should have been dated with the date they were opened.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 10, 2024, at 2:58 p.m. confirmed that multidose vials of insulin and eye drops were to be labeled with the dates they were opened and discarded in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

28 Pa. Code 211.9(h) Pharmacy Services.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

The one opened and undated vial of Levemir insulin , one opened an undated vial of glargine insulin and one opened and undated vial of .005 percent of Latanoprost solution eye drops were discarded.
Medication carts were immediately check for opened and undated vials of medication. Any opened and undated medication was discarded.
Licensed staff including new hires and agency staff will be educated to but not limited to the policy and procedure for medication labeling and storage.
The Director of Nursing and/or designee will monitor multidose medications weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved

483.60(a)(1)(2) REQUIREMENT Qualified Dietary Staff:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.60(a) Staffing
The facility must employ sufficient staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to carry out the functions of the food and nutrition service, taking into consideration resident assessments, individual plans of care and the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at §483.70(e)

This includes:
§483.60(a)(1) A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional either full-time, part-time, or on a consultant basis. A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is one who-
(i) Holds a bachelor's or higher degree granted by a regionally accredited college or university in the United States (or an equivalent foreign degree) with completion of the academic requirements of a program in nutrition or dietetics accredited by an appropriate national accreditation organization recognized for this purpose.
(ii) Has completed at least 900 hours of supervised dietetics practice under the supervision of a registered dietitian or nutrition professional.
(iii) Is licensed or certified as a dietitian or nutrition professional by the State in which the services are performed. In a State that does not provide for licensure or certification, the individual will be deemed to have met this requirement if he or she is recognized as a "registered dietitian" by the Commission on Dietetic Registration or its successor organization, or meets the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(iv) For dietitians hired or contracted with prior to November 28, 2016, meets these requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016 or as required by state law.

§483.60(a)(2) If a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is not employed full-time, the facility must designate a person to serve as the director of food and nutrition services.
(i) The director of food and nutrition services must at a minimum meet one of the following qualifications-
(A) A certified dietary manager; or
(B) A certified food service manager; or
(C) Has similar national certification for food service management and safety from a national certifying body; or
D) Has an associate's or higher degree in food service management or in hospitality, if the course study includes food service or restaurant management, from an accredited institution of higher learning; or
(E) Has 2 or more years of experience in the position of director of food and nutrition services in a nursing facility setting and has completed a course of study in food safety and management, by no later than October 1, 2023, that includes topics integral to managing dietary operations including, but not limited to, foodborne illness, sanitation procedures, and food purchasing/receiving; and
(ii) In States that have established standards for food service managers or dietary managers, meets State requirements for food service managers or dietary managers, and
(iii) Receives frequently scheduled consultations from a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional.
Observations:

Based on observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to employ a full-time qualified dietitian.

Findings include:

Interview with the facility's Dietary Manager on June 10, 2024, at 9:14 a.m. revealed that the facility did not have a qualified dietician on staff as of May 20, 2024, when the previous dietician's employment ended.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 10:45 a.m. confirmed that the facility did not have a dietician or a dietician consultant employed as of June 13, 2024.

28 Pa Code 201.18(e)(1)(6) Management.

28 Pa. Code 211.6(c)(d) Dietary Services.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

The facility has retained a contracted dietician.
483.20(f)(5), 483.70(i)(1)-(5) REQUIREMENT Resident Records - Identifiable Information:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.20(f)(5) Resident-identifiable information.
(i) A facility may not release information that is resident-identifiable to the public.
(ii) The facility may release information that is resident-identifiable to an agent only in accordance with a contract under which the agent agrees not to use or disclose the information except to the extent the facility itself is permitted to do so.

§483.70(i) Medical records.
§483.70(i)(1) In accordance with accepted professional standards and practices, the facility must maintain medical records on each resident that are-
(i) Complete;
(ii) Accurately documented;
(iii) Readily accessible; and
(iv) Systematically organized

§483.70(i)(2) The facility must keep confidential all information contained in the resident's records,
regardless of the form or storage method of the records, except when release is-
(i) To the individual, or their resident representative where permitted by applicable law;
(ii) Required by Law;
(iii) For treatment, payment, or health care operations, as permitted by and in compliance with 45 CFR 164.506;
(iv) For public health activities, reporting of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence, health oversight activities, judicial and administrative proceedings, law enforcement purposes, organ donation purposes, research purposes, or to coroners, medical examiners, funeral directors, and to avert a serious threat to health or safety as permitted by and in compliance with 45 CFR 164.512.

§483.70(i)(3) The facility must safeguard medical record information against loss, destruction, or unauthorized use.

§483.70(i)(4) Medical records must be retained for-
(i) The period of time required by State law; or
(ii) Five years from the date of discharge when there is no requirement in State law; or
(iii) For a minor, 3 years after a resident reaches legal age under State law.

§483.70(i)(5) The medical record must contain-
(i) Sufficient information to identify the resident;
(ii) A record of the resident's assessments;
(iii) The comprehensive plan of care and services provided;
(iv) The results of any preadmission screening and resident review evaluations and determinations conducted by the State;
(v) Physician's, nurse's, and other licensed professional's progress notes; and
(vi) Laboratory, radiology and other diagnostic services reports as required under §483.50.
Observations:


Based on clinical record reviews and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that clinical records were complete and accurately documented for one of 28 residents reviewed (Resident 2).

Findings include:

The facility policy, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that documentation would be complete and accurate.

A quarterly Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 2, dated May 6, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively intact, required the extensive assistance of two staff for daily care tasks, and had diagnoses that included heart failure and diabetes.

Physician's orders for Resident 2, dated November 7, 2023, included an order to clean the reddened area on the right lower back with wound cleanser, pat dry, and apply a hydrocolloid (breathable) dressing every third day and every shift as needed.

Observations on June 13, 2024, at 2:10 p.m. of Resident 2's right lower back revealed that there was no reddened area or dressing noted.

Review of the June 2024 Treatment Administration Records (TAR) for Resident 2 revealed that on June 1, 4, 7 and 10, 2024, wound care was signed as being completed on the right lower back reddened area.

Interview with Registered Nurse 3 and Registered Nurse 13 on June 10, 2024, at 10:36 a.m. and June 13, 2024, at 2:07 p.m., respectively, confirmed that Resident 2 did not currently have a reddened area on her right lower back that required wound care.

Interview with Registered Nurse 13 on June 13, 2024, at 2:10 confirmed that if there was no wound to care for, there should be no documentation to indicate that it was done.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 2:07 p.m. confirmed that Resident 2 did not currently have a reddened area on her right lower back that required wound care; therefore, staff should not be documenting that wound care was done.

28 Pa. Code 211.5(f) Clinical Records.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

The physician was notified that the wound on Resident R2's right lower back is healed. The physician order for the treatment to Resident R2's right lower back has been discontinued.
An audit was conducted to ensure that all wounds were receiving the treatment as ordered by the physician. The physician was updated on each wound and all orders were changed per physician order.
Licensed staff including new hires and agency staff will be inserviced to include but not limited to the policy and procedure regarding documentation which includes accuracy and completion of the documentation as well as updating the physician with wound treatments
The Director of Nursing and/or designee will audit residents with wound orders weekly x two weeks then monthly x two months. Audits will be reviewed by Quality Assurance Performance Improvement Committee until substantial compliance is achieved.

483.70(o)(1)-(4) REQUIREMENT Hospice Services:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.70(o) Hospice services.
§483.70(o)(1) A long-term care (LTC) facility may do either of the following:
(i) Arrange for the provision of hospice services through an agreement with one or more Medicare-certified hospices.
(ii) Not arrange for the provision of hospice services at the facility through an agreement with a Medicare-certified hospice and assist the resident in transferring to a facility that will arrange for the provision of hospice services when a resident requests a transfer.

§483.70(o)(2) If hospice care is furnished in an LTC facility through an agreement as specified in paragraph (o)(1)(i) of this section with a hospice, the LTC facility must meet the following requirements:
(i) Ensure that the hospice services meet professional standards and principles that apply to individuals providing services in the facility, and to the timeliness of the services.
(ii) Have a written agreement with the hospice that is signed by an authorized representative of the hospice and an authorized representative of the LTC facility before hospice care is furnished to any resident. The written agreement must set out at least the following:
(A) The services the hospice will provide.
(B) The hospice's responsibilities for determining the appropriate hospice plan of care as specified in §418.112 (d) of this chapter.
(C) The services the LTC facility will continue to provide based on each resident's plan of care.
(D) A communication process, including how the communication will be documented between the LTC facility and the hospice provider, to ensure that the needs of the resident are addressed and met 24 hours per day.
(E) A provision that the LTC facility immediately notifies the hospice about the following:
(1) A significant change in the resident's physical, mental, social, or emotional status.
(2) Clinical complications that suggest a need to alter the plan of care.
(3) A need to transfer the resident from the facility for any condition.
(4) The resident's death.
(F) A provision stating that the hospice assumes responsibility for determining the appropriate course of hospice care, including the determination to change the level of services provided.
(G) An agreement that it is the LTC facility's responsibility to furnish 24-hour room and board care, meet the resident's personal care and nursing needs in coordination with the hospice representative, and ensure that the level of care provided is appropriately based on the individual resident's needs.
(H) A delineation of the hospice's responsibilities, including but not limited to, providing medical direction and management of the patient; nursing; counseling (including spiritual, dietary, and bereavement); social work; providing medical supplies, durable medical equipment, and drugs necessary for the palliation of pain and symptoms associated with the terminal illness and related conditions; and all other hospice services that are necessary for the care of the resident's terminal illness and related conditions.
(I) A provision that when the LTC facility personnel are responsible for the administration of prescribed therapies, including those therapies determined appropriate by the hospice and delineated in the hospice plan of care, the LTC facility personnel may administer the therapies where permitted by State law and as specified by the LTC facility.
(J) A provision stating that the LTC facility must report all alleged violations involving mistreatment, neglect, or verbal, mental, sexual, and physical abuse, including injuries of unknown source, and misappropriation of patient property by hospice personnel, to the hospice administrator immediately when the LTC facility becomes aware of the alleged violation.
(K) A delineation of the responsibilities of the hospice and the LTC facility to provide bereavement services to LTC facility staff.

§483.70(o)(3) Each LTC facility arranging for the provision of hospice care under a written agreement must designate a member of the facility's interdisciplinary team who is responsible for working with hospice representatives to coordinate care to the resident provided by the LTC facility staff and hospice staff. The interdisciplinary team member must have a clinical background, function within their State scope of practice act, and have the ability to assess the resident or have access to someone that has the skills and capabilities to assess the resident.
The designated interdisciplinary team member is responsible for the following:
(i) Collaborating with hospice representatives and coordinating LTC facility staff participation in the hospice care planning process for those residents receiving these services.
(ii) Communicating with hospice representatives and other healthcare providers participating in the provision of care for the terminal illness, related conditions, and other conditions, to ensure quality of care for the patient and family.
(iii) Ensuring that the LTC facility communicates with the hospice medical director, the patient's attending physician, and other practitioners participating in the provision of care to the patient as needed to coordinate the hospice care with the medical care provided by other physicians.
(iv) Obtaining the following information from the hospice:
(A) The most recent hospice plan of care specific to each patient.
(B) Hospice election form.
(C) Physician certification and recertification of the terminal illness specific to each patient.
(D) Names and contact information for hospice personnel involved in hospice care of each patient.
(E) Instructions on how to access the hospice's 24-hour on-call system.
(F) Hospice medication information specific to each patient.
(G) Hospice physician and attending physician (if any) orders specific to each patient.
(v) Ensuring that the LTC facility staff provides orientation in the policies and procedures of the facility, including patient rights, appropriate forms, and record keeping requirements, to hospice staff furnishing care to LTC residents.

§483.70(o)(4) Each LTC facility providing hospice care under a written agreement must ensure that each resident's written plan of care includes both the most recent hospice plan of care and a description of the services furnished by the LTC facility to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being, as required at §483.24.
Observations:


Based on review of facility policies and clinical records, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to obtain the required information from the contracted hospice provider for one of one hospice residents reviewed (Resident 11).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding the hospice program, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that facility was responsible for obtaining the hospice election of benefits form (a form signed to indicate that the individual waives all rights to traditional Medicare Part A payments for treatment related to the terminal illness) and the certification of terminal illness form (to certify a person's terminal diagnosis and life expectancy of six months or less) from the hospice provider (provider of end-of-life services)

A significant change Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 11, dated May 23, 2024, revealed that the resident was cognitively impaired, required assistance from staff for his daily care needs, and was receiving hospice services.

Physician's orders for Resident 11, dated May 24,2024, revealed that the resident was to receive hospice services, effective May 23, 2024, from the facility's contracted hospice provider. As of June 12, 2024, there was no documented evidence in the resident's clinical record, or in the hospice provider's clinical record, that the facility obtained the hospice election of benefits and the certification of terminal illness from the hospice provider.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 12, 2024, at 3:43 p.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence in Resident 11's clinical record, or in the hospice provider's clinical record, that the facility obtained the hospice election of benefits and the certification of terminal illness from the hospice provider.

28 Pa. Code 211.12(d)(3)(5) Nursing Services.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

On June 13, 2024 the facility obtained the Initial Certification of Terminal Illness and the Hospice election of benefits forms from the Hospice Provider for Resident R11.
An audit was completed to ensure that current residents on hospice have the Initial Certification of Terminal Illness and the Hospice Election of Benefits forms in the resident record.
The Administrator, Social Services Director and licensed staff including new hires and agency staff will be inserviced to include but not limited to the Policy and procedure for Hospice Programs.
The administrator and/or designee will ensure that the Initial Certification of Terminal Illness and the Hospice Election of Benefits forms will be completed prior to the start of hospice services. Results will be taken to the Quality Assurance and Process Improvement committee for review and further recommendations.

483.75(c)(d)(e)(g)(2)(i)(ii) REQUIREMENT QAPI/QAA Improvement Activities:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.75(c) Program feedback, data systems and monitoring.
A facility must establish and implement written policies and procedures for feedback, data collections systems, and monitoring, including adverse event monitoring. The policies and procedures must include, at a minimum, the following:

§483.75(c)(1) Facility maintenance of effective systems to obtain and use of feedback and input from direct care staff, other staff, residents, and resident representatives, including how such information will be used to identify problems that are high risk, high volume, or problem-prone, and opportunities for improvement.

§483.75(c)(2) Facility maintenance of effective systems to identify, collect, and use data and information from all departments, including but not limited to the facility assessment required at §483.70(e) and including how such information will be used to develop and monitor performance indicators.

§483.75(c)(3) Facility development, monitoring, and evaluation of performance indicators, including the methodology and frequency for such development, monitoring, and evaluation.

§483.75(c)(4) Facility adverse event monitoring, including the methods by which the facility will systematically identify, report, track, investigate, analyze and use data and information relating to adverse events in the facility, including how the facility will use the data to develop activities to prevent adverse events.

§483.75(d) Program systematic analysis and systemic action.

§483.75(d)(1) The facility must take actions aimed at performance improvement and, after implementing those actions, measure its success, and track performance to ensure that improvements are realized and sustained.

§483.75(d)(2) The facility will develop and implement policies addressing:
(i) How they will use a systematic approach to determine underlying causes of problems impacting larger systems;
(ii) How they will develop corrective actions that will be designed to effect change at the systems level to prevent quality of care, quality of life, or safety problems; and
(iii) How the facility will monitor the effectiveness of its performance improvement activities to ensure that improvements are sustained.

§483.75(e) Program activities.

§483.75(e)(1) The facility must set priorities for its performance improvement activities that focus on high-risk, high-volume, or problem-prone areas; consider the incidence, prevalence, and severity of problems in those areas; and affect health outcomes, resident safety, resident autonomy, resident choice, and quality of care.

§483.75(e)(2) Performance improvement activities must track medical errors and adverse resident events, analyze their causes, and implement preventive actions and mechanisms that include feedback and learning throughout the facility.

§483.75(e)(3) As part of their performance improvement activities, the facility must conduct distinct performance improvement projects. The number and frequency of improvement projects conducted by the facility must reflect the scope and complexity of the facility's services and available resources, as reflected in the facility assessment required at §483.70(e). Improvement projects must include at least annually a project that focuses on high risk or problem-prone areas identified through the data collection and analysis described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.

§483.75(g) Quality assessment and assurance.

§483.75(g)(2) The quality assessment and assurance committee reports to the facility's governing body, or designated person(s) functioning as a governing body regarding its activities, including implementation of the QAPI program required under paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section. The committee must:

(ii) Develop and implement appropriate plans of action to correct identified quality deficiencies;
(iii) Regularly review and analyze data, including data collected under the QAPI program and data resulting from drug regimen reviews, and act on available data to make improvements.
Observations:


Based on review of the facility's plans of correction for previous surveys, and the results of the current survey, it was determined that the facility's Quality Assurance Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee failed to correct quality deficiencies and ensure that plans to improve the delivery of care and services effectively addressed recurring deficiencies.

Findings include:

The facility's deficiencies and plans of correction for a State Survey and Certification (Department of Health) survey ending August 30, 2023, revealed that the facility developed plans of correction that included development and implementation of abuse and neglect polices, quality of care, and pharmacy services. The results of the current survey, ending June 13, 2024, identified repeated deficiencies related development and implementation of abuse and neglect polices, quality of care, and pharmacy services.

The facility's plan of correction for a deficiency regarding development and implementation of abuse and neglect policies, cited during the survey ending August 30, 2023, revealed that the facility developed a plan of correction that included completing audits and reporting the results of the audits to the QAPI committee for review. The results of the current survey, cited under F607, revealed that the facility's QAPI committee failed to successfully implement their plan to ensure ongoing compliance with regulations regarding development and implementation of abuse and neglect policies.

The facility's plan of correction for a deficiency regarding quality of care, cited during the survey ending August 30, 2023, revealed that the facility developed a plan of correction that included completing audits and reporting the results of the audits to the QAPI committee for review. The results of the current survey, cited under F684, revealed that the facility's QAPI committee failed to successfully implement their plan to ensure ongoing compliance with regulations regarding quality of care.

The facility's plan of correction for a deficiency regarding pharmacy services, cited during the survey ending August 30, 2023, revealed that the facility developed a plan of correction that included completing audits and reporting the results of the audits to the QAPI committee for review. The results of the current survey, cited under F755, revealed that the facility's QAPI committee failed to successfully implement their plan to ensure ongoing compliance with regulations regarding pharmacy services.

Refer to F607, F684, and F755.

28 Pa. Code 201.14(a) Responsibility of Licensee.

28 Pa. Code 201.18(e)(1) Management.



 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

The Quality Assurance and Process Improvement Committee will immediately implement a plan for F 607, F 684 and F755 to ensure ongoing compliance.
The Quality Assurance and Process Improvement committee will implement a plan for all deficiencies cited during the survey ending June 13, 2024.
The Quality Assurance and Process Improvement committee will be inserviced to include but not limited to the policy and procedure for establishing and maintaining a Quality Assurance and Process Improvement Committee.
The Administrator and/or designee will send the monthly meeting minutes to the Director of Operations and/or designee for review monthly. The Director of Operations and/or designee will provide feedback to the committee.


483.95(g)(1)-(4) REQUIREMENT Required In-Service Training for Nurse Aides:This is a less serious (but not lowest level) deficiency and is isolated to the fewest number of residents, staff, or occurrences. This deficiency is one that results in minimal discomfort to the resident or has the potential (not yet realized) to negatively affect the resident's ability to achieve his/her highest functional status.
§483.95(g) Required in-service training for nurse aides.
In-service training must-

§483.95(g)(1) Be sufficient to ensure the continuing competence of nurse aides, but must be no less than 12 hours per year.

§483.95(g)(2) Include dementia management training and resident abuse prevention training.

§483.95(g)(3) Address areas of weakness as determined in nurse aides' performance reviews and facility assessment at § 483.70(e) and may address the special needs of residents as determined by the facility staff.

§483.95(g)(4) For nurse aides providing services to individuals with cognitive impairments, also address the care of the cognitively impaired.
Observations:


Based on review of a list of nurse aides currently employed by the facility, including their hire dates and training hours, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that nurse aides had 12 hours of in-service training annually for two of three nurse aides reviewed (Nurse Aide 6, Nurse Aide 7), and failed to ensure that nurse aides received annual in-service training regarding abuse and dementia for one of three nurse aides reviewed (Nurse Aide 6).

Findings include:

The facility's policy regarding in-services, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that the facility was mandated to ensure that all employees receive training hours required within state and federal guidelines.

A list of nurse aides provided by the facility revealed that based on their months and days of hire:

Nurse Aide 6 should have received at least 12 hours of in-service training between March 28, 2023, and March 28, 2024. However, there was no documented evidence that she received at least 12 hours of in-service training as required.

Nurse Aide 7 should have received at least 12 hours of in-service training between February 26, 2023, and February 26, 2024. However, there was no documented evidence that she received at least 12 hours of in-service training as required.

The facility's policy regarding abuse, neglect, exploitation, and misappropriation, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that the facility required staff trainings that included such topics as abuse prevention, identification, reporting abuse, and handling verbally or physically aggressive resident behaviors.

Review of personnel records for Nurse Aide 6 revealed a hire date of March 28, 2023. However, there was no documented evidence that she received the facility's annual resident abuse training, abuse reporting training, and dementia training during the time period of March 28, 2023, through March 28, 2024.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 12, 2024, at 2:40 p.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence that the above nurse aides received at least 12 hours of in-service training as required or received the facility's annual resident abuse, abuse reporting, and dementia training.

28 Pa. Code 201.20(a) Staff Development.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Nurse aide 6 and Nurse aide 7 have completed all the 12 hours of required training as well as the facility's annual abuse, abuse report and dementia training.
Current employee files will be audited to ensure all employes have their required training.
The Director of Nursing, Administrator and the Human Resources manager will be inserviced to include but not limited to the policy and procedure for required inservices. A monthly inservice calendar will be created to ensure compliance.
The Administrator and/or designee will monitor all employee education inservices monthly to ensure compliance. The results will be taken to the Quality Assurance and Process Improvement committee for review and further recommendations.

§ 201.14(a) LICENSURE Responsibility of licensee.:State only Deficiency.
(a) The licensee is responsible for meeting the minimum standards for the operation of a facility as set forth by the Department and by other Federal, State and local agencies responsible for the health and welfare of residents. This includes complying with all applicable Federal and State laws, and rules, regulations and orders issued by the Department and other Federal, State or local agencies.

Observations:


Based on review of Pennsylvania state law, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure that the multi-disciplinary infection control committee met at least quarterly.

Findings include:

The Act 52 Infection Control Plan, dated January 25, 2024, revealed that a health care facility should develop and implement an internal infection control plan that should be established for the purpose of improving the health and safety of residents and health care workers, and should include a multi-disciplinary committee including a representative from each of the following, if applicable to the specific health care facility. Applicable members included medical staff that could include the chief medical officer or the nursing home medical director, the nursing home administrator, laboratory personnel, nursing staff that could include the director of nursing or a nursing supervisor, pharmacy staff, physical plant personnel, a patient safety officer, and a community member that may not be an agent, employee or contractor of the facility.

As of June 12, 2024, the facility was unable to provide documented evidence that the facility's multi-disciplinary infection control committee met at least quarterly for three of four quarters.

Interview with the Infection Preventionist/Director of Nursing on June 12, 2024, at 8:10 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence that the facility's multi-disciplinary infection control committee met at least quarterly for three of four quarters.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will ensure that Infection Preventionist has scheduled Infection prevention committee meeting a minimum of quarterly.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will review aforementioned information with representative of medical staff, administration, nursing staff, pharmacy staff, physical plant personnel, patient safety officer, a community member and a member of the infection control team.

The Director of Nursing and/or designee will audit attendance sheets to ensure all required personnel are in attendance for two quarters then again on the third quarter to ensure compliance.

The results will be reviewed at the Quality Assurance Process Improvement meetings until substantial compliance has been met.
§ 201.22(b) LICENSURE Prevention, control and surveillance of tuber:State only Deficiency.
(b) Recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) shall be followed in screening, testing and surveillance for TB and in treating and managing persons with confirmed or suspected TB.

Observations:


Based on a review of policies, as well as observations and staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to implement its written policy and procedure for screening and surveillance of tuberculosis for four of five new employees reviewed (Nurse Aide 5, Nurse Aide 9, Nurse Aide 10, Housekeeper 11).

Findings include:

The facility's current policy regarding tuberculosis (TB)(a bacterial infection), indicated that the facility would provide screening and surveillance of residents and employees for latent tuberculosis infection and active TB as appropriate for the current TB risk classifications.

The personnel file for Nurse Aide 5 revealed that she was hired on March 3, 2024. She received a PPD test on February 29, 2023, and there was no documentation of the results after administration of the PPD.

The personnel file for Nurse Aide 9 revealed that she was hired on March 4, 2024. She received a PPD test on March 9, 2023, and there was no documentation of the results after administration of the PPD.

The personnel file for Nurse Aide 10 revealed that she was hired on March 12, 2024. She received a PPD test on February 25, 2023, and there was no documentation of the results after administration of the PPD.

The personnel file for Housekeeper 11 revealed that she was hired on April 19, 2024. There was no documentation of administration of the PPD upon hire.

Interview with the Human Resources Director on June 13, 2024, at 10:54 a.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence that PPD results were obtained for the employees listed above. She was not aware that a one-step TB test should have been completed upon hire if there was documentation of a two-step PPD in the previous 12 months; otherwise, a two-step PPD should be completed.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Staff # 5,9,10,11 were screened for tuberculosis.
The Human Resource Director was educated on provide screening and surveillance of
employees for latent tuberculosis infection and active TB as appropriate for the
current TB risk classifications, and requirements for screening of new hires. The Human Resource Director and/or designee will ensure that the results of the TB testing are recorded as appropriate.
Nursing Home Administrator or designee will audit for tuberculosis screening of all new hires weekly time 2 weeks, and then monthly times two months.
The results will be reviewed at the Quality Assurance Process Improvement meetings until substantial compliance has been met.

§ 211.9(j.1) (1) - (5) LICENSURE Pharmacy services.:State only Deficiency.
(j.1) The facility shall have written policies and procedures for the disposition of medications that address all of the following:
(1) Timely and safe identification and removal of medications for disposition.
(2) Identification of storage methods for medications awaiting final disposition.
(3) Control and accountability of medications awaiting final disposition consistent with standards of practice.
(4) Documentation of actual disposition of medications to include the name of the individual disposing of the medication, the name of the resident, the name of the medication, the strength of the medication, the prescription number if applicable, the quantity of medication and the date of disposition.
(5) A method of disposition to prevent diversion or accidental exposure consistent with applicable Federal and State requirements, local ordinances and standards of practice.

Observations:


Based on a review of facility policies and closed records, as well as interviews with staff, it was determined that the facility failed to document the disposition of medications and/or the quantity of drugs disposed for one of two closed clinical records reviewed (Resident 39).

Findings include:

The facility's policy for disposal of medications, dated June 7, 2024, indicated that when medications are discontinued by a prescriber, a resident is transferred or discharged, or in the event of death, the medications are destroyed, or, if the packages are unopened, and are not controlled substances, they are returned to the pharmacy. Medications destroyed are documented on a medication disposition form including the date, medication name and strength, quantity and prescription number. For each medication returned, an entry is made on the medication disposition form including the date, medication name and strength, quantity being returned, and prescription number. Copies of the completed medication disposition forms are kept on file in the facility.

A death in facility tracking Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment (a mandated assessment of a resident's abilities and care needs) for Resident 39, dated April 29, 2024, revealed that she died at the facility. There was no documented evidence in the clinical record of the disposition of medications upon discharge from the facility.

Interview with the Medical Records Employee 12 on June 13, 2024, at 2:30 p.m. confirmed that there was no documented evidence of the disposition of medications for Resident 39 upon discharge from the facility and there should have been.






 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

Resident 39 was previously discharged from the facility.
Education provided to licensed nursing staff on the disposal of medications. Education provided which includes a checklist of all items required to close medical records are received prior to closing of a medical chart. The checklist will be completed for each discharged resident.
Nursing Home Administrator or designee will audit to ensure that closed records are completed with the required items are in place in closed chart weekly times two weeks then monthly times two months.
The results will be reviewed at the Quality Assurance Process Improvement meetings until substantial compliance has been met.


§ 211.12(f.1)(2) LICENSURE Nursing services. :State only Deficiency.
(2) Effective July 1, 2023, a minimum of 1 nurse aide per 12 residents during the day, 1 nurse aide per 12 residents during the evening, and 1 nurse aide per 20 residents overnight.

Observations:


Based on review of nursing schedules and staffing information furnished by the facility, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure a minimum of one nurse aide per 12 residents on the day shift for eight of 21 days, and failed to ensure a minimum of one nurse aide (NA) per 12 residents on the evening shift for three of 21 days (24-hour periods) reviewed.

Findings include:

Staffing information provided by the facility, dated March 12-18, 2024; May 21-27, 2024; and June 5-11, 2024, revealed that facility census data indicated that on March 14, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 3.08 (37 residents divided by 12) NAs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 2.93 NAs provided care on the day shift on March 14, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on March 15, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 3.08 NAs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 2.93 NAs provided care on the day shift on March 15, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on March 16, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 3.08 NAs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 2.97 NAs provided care on the day shift on March 16, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on March 17, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 3.08 NAs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 3.00 NAs provided care on the day shift on March 17, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on March 18, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 3.08 NAs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 3.00 NAs provided care on the day shift on March 18, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on May 24, 2024, the facility census was 38, which required 3.17 NAs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 3.07 NAs provided care on the day shift on May 24, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on May 25, 2024, the facility census was 38, which required 3.17 NAs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 3.10 NAs provided care on the day shift on May 25, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on June 6, 2024, the facility census was 38, which required 3.17 NAs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 3.00 NAs provided care on the day shift on May 24, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on March 13, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 3.08 (37 residents divided by 12) NAs during the evening shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 3.07 NAs provided care on the evening shift on March 13, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on March 18, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 3.08 NAs during the evening shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 3.07 NAs provided care on the evening shift on March 18, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on May 21, 2024, the facility census was 38, which required 3.17 NAs during the evening shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 3.03 NAs provided care on the evening shift on March 21, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Review of facility census data indicated that on June 5, 2024, the facility census was 39, which required 3.25 NAs during the evening shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 3.23 NAs provided care on the evening shift on June 5, 2024. No additional excess higher-level staff were available to compensate for this deficiency.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, at 4:30 p.m. confirmed that the facility did not meet the required NA-to-resident staffing ratios for the days listed above.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

The facility will continue to take measures to adequately provide staff to meet the required nurse aide to resident ratios on all shifts. When total nurse aide to resident ratios is unable to be met, the facility will reevaluate the scheduling of new admissions
The Director of Nursing or designee will provide education on minimum staffing ratios to the Registered Nurse Supervisor and Scheduler who are responsible to maintain adequate staffing and staffing ratios.
The Director of Nursing or designee will audit daily schedules to ensure minimum number of staff are scheduled to meet the needs of the residents. These audits will be conducted daily for 7 days and weekly for 2 weeks.
The results will be reviewed at the Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings until substantial compliance has been met.

§ 211.12(f.1)(4) LICENSURE Nursing services. :State only Deficiency.
(4) Effective July 1, 2023, a minimum of 1 LPN per 25 residents during the day, 1 LPN per 30 residents during the evening, and 1 LPN per 40 residents overnight.
Observations:


Based on review of nursing schedules and staffing information furnished by the facility, as well as staff interviews, it was determined that the facility failed to ensure a minimum of one Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) per 25 residents on the day shift for 20 of 21 days, and failed to ensure a minimum of one LPN per 30 residents on the evening shift for 21 of 21 days (24-hour periods) reviewed.

Findings include:

Review of facility census data indicated that on March 12-13, 15-18 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 1.48 (37 residents divided by 25) LPNs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on the dates listed above.

Review of facility census data indicated that on May 21-27, 2024, the facility census was 38, which required 1.52 LPNs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on the dates listed above.

Review of facility census data indicated that on June 5, 2024, the facility census was 38, which required 1.56 LPNs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on June 5, 2024.

Review of facility census data indicated that on June 6-8, 2024, the facility census was 39, which required 1.52 LPNs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on the dates listed above.

Review of facility census data indicated that on June 9-11, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 1.48 LPNs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on the dates listed above.

Review of facility census data indicated that on March 12-18, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 1.23 (37 residents divided by 30) LPNs during the evening shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on the dates listed above.

Review of facility census data indicated that on May 21-27, 2024, the facility census was 38, which required 1.27 LPNs during the evening shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on the dates listed above.

Review of facility census data indicated that on June 5, 2024, the facility census was 38, which required 1.30 LPNs during the evening shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on June 5, 2024.

Review of facility census data indicated that on June 6-8, 2024, the facility census was 39, which required 1.27 LPNs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on the dates listed above.

Review of facility census data indicated that on June 9-11, 2024, the facility census was 37, which required 1.23 LPNs during the day shift. Review of the nursing time schedules revealed 1.00 LPNs provided care on the day shift on the dates listed above.

Interview with the Nursing Home Administrator on June 13, 2024, confirmed that the facility did not meet the required LPN-to-resident staffing ratios for the day listed above.




 Plan of Correction - To be completed: 08/06/2024

The facility will continue to take measures to adequately provide staff to meet the required Licensed Professional Nurse to resident ratios on all shifts. When total licensed professional nurse to resident ratios is unable to be met, the facility will reevaluate the scheduling of new admissions.
The Director of Nursing or designee will provide education on minimum staffing ratios to the Registered Nurse Supervisor and Scheduler who are responsible to maintain adequate staffing and staffing ratios.
The Director of Nursing or designee will audit daily schedules to ensure minimum number of staff are scheduled to meet the needs of the residents. These audits will be conducted daily for 7 days and weekly for 2 weeks.
The results will be reviewed at Quality Assurance and Process Improvement meetings until substantial compliance has been met.


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